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Code d'Examen: E20-895
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery - Avamar Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 An EMC Avamar customer has a Celerra running DART 6.0 with 20 TB of data. There are approximately
10 million files distributed across two Data Movers. They would like to backup the NAS in approximately
five hours. What is the maximum number of streams that can be configured?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.2 An EMC Avamar customer is currently using a 2 TB Avamar Virtual Edition (AVE) for their backup
environment. They want to begin backing up several Oracle databases and file servers running on a new
ESX server. It is determined that a separate AVE should be added to the backup environment for these
new backups.
What should be done when implementing the new configuration?
A. Install the new AVE on a different ESX server from the first AVE
B. Use thin provisioning to create the new AVE
C. Run benchmark tests for acceptable TCP/IP performance
D. Use RAID 6 for the physical disk storing the new virtual disk
Answer: A

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NO.3 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being directed to a Data Domain system. The
backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. From Avamar Administrator, the
customer manually deletes the backup.
When is the backup data deleted from the Data Domain system.?
A. Immediately on the Data Domain system
B. Manually deleted on the Data Domain system by the administrator
C. Next time the Avamar system runs garbage collection
D. Next time the Data Domain file system cleaning operation runs
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has an EMC Avamar system backing up a Celerra running DART 6.0 using a single 36 GB
NDMP Accelerator Node. They are also going to back up a VNX OE 7.0 system using the same NDMP
Accelerator. Each NAS device has four volumes configured on it. Backups will be configured on the
Avamar system for both NAS storage devices to start at the same time.
What will occur when the NDMP backups start using default settings?
A. Both backups will start with two active streams each
B. One NAS device will start its backup with four streams, the other will queue
C. One NAS device will start its backup with one stream, the other will queue
D. Both backups will start with one stream each
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has setup their EMC Celerra to backup through an Avamar NDMP Accelerator Node. They
are not seeing any increased performance since the initial backup. They have investigated the Celerra
and there are no outstanding issues.
What is a potential reason for the poor backup performance?
A. Dataset options are set to Level 0
B. Dataset advanced option is blank
C. Data has a high change rate
D. Dataset options are set to Level 1
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has an EMC Avamar integrated with a Data Domain system as a backup solution. They
would like to use encryption for the backups that are directed to the Data Domain system.
Which method(s) of encryption can be used in this environment?
A. Enable encryption-at-rest on the Data Domain system
B. Enable in-flight encryption between the client and the Data Domain system
C. Both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest are not supported
D. Enable both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest
Answer: A

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NO.7 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being written to a Data Domain system. The
Data Domain cleaning schedule runs at 8 A.M. on Tuesday mornings. Avamar maintenance runs daily at
6 A.M. A backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. The customer manually
deletes the backup on Wednesday afternoon using the Avamar Administrator.
When is the space reclaimed on the Data Domain system?
A. At the next Data Domain file system cleaning
B. Immediately on the Data Domain system
C. At the next scheduled Avamar garbage collection
D. When manually deleted from the Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.8 A new EMC Avamar customer wants help in setting up their backup groups and schedules. They are
migrating from a traditional tape backup solution with full backups performed once a week and
incrementals in between. They have a regulatory requirement to keep an annual backup for seven years
but want to keep all other backups for one month. Both Microsoft Windows and Linux clients will be
backed up. Based on best practices, what should be recommended?
A. Include all clients in the same group using one dataset and an advanced retention policy
B. Use a separate group for each operating system /retention combination
C. Enable the default group and use that group for all backups
D. Use one group for weekly backups and one for the other days of the week
Answer: A

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NO.9 An EMC customer has a three-node cluster with the Avamar Windows client installed. Each node has
the Avamar Exchange 2007 plug-in installed. What should be done to avoid backing up the same data
multiple times within a backup window?
A. Exclude virtual node file systems from the physical node dataset
B. Ensure the Quorum drive is backed up only once per week instead of nightly C. Ensure both the
physical and virtual nodes are in the same Avamar group
D. Verify that the Exchange database backup is not scheduled at the same time as the file system backup
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer is successfully backing up 50 virtual machines (VMs) hosted on two ESX hosts. There are
two datastores and two proxy servers used for VADP-based backups. They deploy another proxy server
to backup 10 new VMs residing on a new datastore. The backups for the new VMs failed with the
following error:
Event Code: 30931 - Failed to initiate a backup or restore of a virtual machine because no proxy was
found to service the virtual machine. What caused this error?
A. Not enough space is allocated on the proxy server to mount VM snaps
B. Proxy server is not provisioned on the new datastore
C. Proxy host has not been given backup privilege in the vCenter
D. New datastore is not selected for the proxy server in Avamar Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.11 An existing EMC Avamar customer has noticed that garbage collection is not running properly on a
daily basis. The garbage collection logs show the process failing with the MSG_ERR_FULL error each
time it attempts to run. The Avamar Administrator reports the server capacity as 96%.What could be
causing garbage collection to fail?
A. GSAN capacity is over 85%
B. Operating system capacity is over 85%
C. Operating system capacity is over 65%
D. Avamar server has reached the health check limit
Answer: B

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NO.12 An EMC employee has been assigned to run securedelete against two clients for a total of 20 GBs on
an Avamar server. During a planning discussion with the customer, they want to know what the impact on
their Avamar server would be while securedelete is running.
What is the correct response to the customer?
A. GSAN will be in admin mode and the Avamar server will be read only
B. Avamar will continue to function with a limited amount of available threads
C. GSAN will be shut down during the extent of the securedelete task
D. Avamar will continue to function without any limitations
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has been performing full backups of their SharePoint farm to an Avamar server. They have
installed the Avamar SharePoint backup client without the GLR feature. They want to perform a restore of
only one web application, but do not want to take any of the SharePoint farm servers offline. What should
be done?
A. Install GLR onto a separate Windows client outside of the farm
B. Install GLR onto the application server to which the web application is to be recovered
C. Install GLR onto all servers of the SharePoint farm
D. Install GLR onto the web front-end server
Answer: A

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NO.14 An EMC Avamar backup administrator wants to use their company login account for administering an
Avamar server. The procedures were followed successfully to update the configuration for external LDAP
authentication. However, they still cannot successfully log into Avamar Administrator with the account.
Which action is needed?
A. Assign a default password to the account in Avamar
B. Add the account to the Avamar server O/S
C. Add the user account to Avamar and assign a role
D. Add an Avamar domain with the same name as the LDAP domain
Answer: C

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NO.15 An EMC customer is using NetWorker with integrated Avamar deduplication nodes. They have expired
a large amount of data on the NetWorker server. After several hours, they notice that the index entries
have been deleted from NetWorker. However, data has not been removed from the deduplication node.
What is a potential reason?
A. Garbage collection has not yet occurred on the deduplication node
B. Data must also be manually expired from within Avamar
C. Garbage collection has been suspended on the NetWorker server
D. Saveset metadata has not been purged from the storage node
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E10-001
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Information Storage and Management Exam Version 2)
Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a key benefit of virtualization?
A. Improved resource utilization
B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for
resources dynamically?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a characteristic of unified storage?
A. Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface
B. Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unified management interface
C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualization products in one solution
D. Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unified management interface
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?
A. IQN
B. EUI
C. WWNN
D. WWPN
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage?
A. Metering
B. Pooling
C. Self-service requesting
D. Publishing
Answer: A

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NO.6 An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application
data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?
A. Source devices must be healthy
B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices
C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices
D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among
UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?
A. Defining cloud service attributes
B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers
C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer
D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?
A. RecoverPoint
B. NetWorker
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: A

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NO.10 What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?
A. Area on which the read/write head rests
B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters
D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the
host when it has not been accessed for a while?
A. LRU
B. HWM
C. LWM
D. MRU
Answer: A

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NO.12 What defines the time taken to position the read/write head across the platter with a radial movement
in a disk drive?
A. Seek time
B. Rotational latency
C. Data transfer time
D. Service time
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?
A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume
B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration
C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?
A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated
B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM
C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot
D. Create a Gold
copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved
as it was received?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Security
D. Performance
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which statement describes a denial of service attack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone s identity
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet
communications?
A. Converged network adapter
B. TCP Offload Engine NIC
C. FCIP bridging adapter
D. iSCSI host bus adapter
Answer: A

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NO.18 What does the area ID of the FC address identify.?
A. Group of ports within a switch
B. An individual port within a fabric
C. Location of the name server within the fabric
D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications
B. Eliminates consumer's IT operational expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with
other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links
independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their
transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management Web Application Programming Exam)
Questions et réponses: 153 Q&As

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NO.1 Where are the WDK servlets defined?
A. app.xml
B. wdk.xml
C. web.xml
D. server.xml
Answer: C

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NO.2 The highest level application layer of a WDK application is defined in which file?
A. app.xml
B. conf.xml
C. wdk.xml
D. web.xml
Answer: D

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NO.3 Given the following code: fragment:
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="delete" notdefined="true" />
</scope>
Which statement is true about the notdefined attribute?
A. The delete component is available for dm_folder types, but not for dm_cabinet types.
B. The delete component is available for dm_folder and dm_cabinet types, but not for dm_document
types.
C. The delete component is available for dm_document types, but not for dm_folder or dm_cabinet types.
D. The delete component is available for dm_document, dm_folder and dm_cabinet types.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which diagram represents a typical Component Processing Sequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Where do you register a custom theme?
A. app.xml
B. BrandingServiceProp.properties
C. webforms.css
D. web.xml
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where must component configuration files be located?
A. anywhere within application directories
B. in the config directory only
C. in the config directory and its subdirectories
D. anywhere, since the location is configurable
Answer: C

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NO.7 According to the diagram, which component definition will be used for all instances of the type
sop_doc? Assume all four definitions exist in the application.
A. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_sysobject">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
B. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="corporate_docs">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
C. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="procedure_doc">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
D. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which code fragment lists the components for a container?
A. <contains>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</contains>
B. <pages>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</pages>
C. <include>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</include>
D. <params>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</params>
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement is true about the inheritance of elements between application layers?
A. Elements are inherited from lower layers if they are not overridden in the higher layers.
B. Elements are inherited from lower layers only if they are overridden in the higher layers.
C. Elements are inherited from all application layers regardless of application layer hierarchy.
D. Elements are only inherited from application layers that are at the same level in the application layer
hierarchy.
Answer: A

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NO.10 How do you automatically include a custom JavaScript file to be in all of your JSPs?
A. by adding a reference to the component configuration file
B. by specifying it as an application parameter in the app.xml
C. by appending a reference to the Javascript file WebformScripts.properties
D. by using the <@ page import="custom/myUtils.js"> directive
Answer: C

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NO.11 What makes up a component definition file?
A. pages, parameters, NLS, description
B. pages, behavior, NLS, controls
C. pages, behavior, parameters, events
D. behavior, scope, NLS, actions
Answer: A

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NO.12 You have implemented a custom authentication scheme, MyAuthenticationScheme.
To what must you add your scheme to ensure it is active?
A. in a properties file under the custom directory
B. in the app.xml under the custom directory
C. in a properties file under the WEB-INF/classes directory
D. in the web.xml under the WEB-INF directory
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which type of container provides breadcrumb control functionality?
A. dialogcontainer
B. wizardcontainer
C. combocontainer
D. navigationcontainer
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is true about action and component XML definitions?
A. Actions and components always require parameters.
B. Actions and components have layouts/presentations.
C. Action and component dispatchers use the same qualifiers.
D. Action and component definitions may contain preconditions.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You do not see the Presets option in Webtop. What could be a possible reason?
A. The Content Server does not have a license for Presets.
B. The BOF registry entry is incorrect in the dfc.properties file.
C. You are not a superuser.
D. You are not a system administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which authentication scheme enables safe automatic login by passing credentials in the URL?
A. Docbase Login Authentication Scheme
B. User Principal Authentication Scheme
C. Uniform Resource Locator Authentication Scheme
D. Ticketed Authentication Scheme
Answer: D

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NO.17 Given the following fragment:
<contains>
<component>newFolder</component>
<component>attributes</component>
<component requiresVisit='true'>permissions</component>
</contains>
Which statement is true?
A. The container will commit changes upon visit to each component.
B. The permissions component must be viewed before the container can commit changes.
C. The OK button will be enabled upon viewing the newFolder component.
D. The permissions component will be the default component within the container.
Answer: B

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NO.18 How do you make only one theme available to users?
A. You include only one theme definition in the application configuration file in the custom layer.
B. You set the visible attribute of the dmf:datadropdownlist control for the theme to false.
C. You delete all the theme directories except the one you want from custom/themes.
D. You remove all but one theme definition from the application configuration file in the webcomponent
layer.
Answer: A

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NO.19 For what can a qualifier be used?
A. to filter valid data to be displayed
B. to check permissions during authentication
C. to scope and filter actions and components
D. to check data against the data dictionary
Answer: C

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NO.20 You have a component that is contained within a dialogcontainer.
What are the correct criteria to display the Close button?
A. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns false
B. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns false
C. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns true
D. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns true
Answer: A

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NO.21 You have written a custom authentication scheme and have correctly added the scheme to the system.
You discover a problem in the code, which causes the scheme to always return null.
How does the null return value affect authentication in Webtop?
A. Any remaining schemes are skipped, and the login dialog is presented immediately.
B. Any remaining schemes are attempted, where the login dialog is usually the final authentication
scheme.
C. The scheme throws a null pointer exception and prevents other schemes from authenticating.
D. The scheme automatically logs the user in as the repository administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Your employer asks you to rename the custom folder for your WDK application to "datasink."
Which XML entry represents the correct means of changing the custom folder's name?
A. <custom>
<application>
<application-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<application-value>datasink</param-value>
</application>
...
B. <config>
<app-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value extends="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</app-param>
...
C. <web-inf>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value inherits="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
D. <web-app>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value>datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which order represents the default Preset precedence?
A. location, user, role, object type
B. user, object type, role, location
C. user, role, object type, location
D. location, role, user, object type
Answer: A

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NO.24 Given the following fragment:
<filter role="contributor, not administrator">
...
</filter>
Which roles will be allowed to use the definition within this filter element?
A. contributors, coordinators, consumers and administrators
B. contributors, coordinators, and consumers, but not administrators
C. contributors, coordinators, but not administrators or consumers
D. contributors, but not administrators, coordinators or consumers
Answer: C

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NO.25 You are creating a component that requires verification to determine if the OK button can be selected.
Which container method can be overridden to implement this functionality?
A. onOK()
B. onNextPage()
C. onCommitChanges()
D. canCommitChanges()
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which statement is true about Trusted Authentication Scheme (Principal Support)?
A. It disables authentication through the Content Server.
B. It allows a superuser account to impersonate any given user.
C. The application server user name must not match a repository superuser.
D. A non-superuser account may be used to obtain login tickets.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which directories are representative of application layers in a default Webtop installation?
A. WEB-INF and webtop
B. WEB-INF and wdk
C. custom and webtop
D. custom and help
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which is true about Presets?
A. Presets are not used to provide security
B. Presets descend to subfolders
C. Presets applied to a folder do not apply to the files imported into the folder
D. Presets only comprise of a single rule each
Answer: A

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NO.29 If you want a new application layer in between the custom and webtop layers, then which file should
you extend?
A. \custom\app.xml
B. \webtop\app.xml
C. \WEB-INF\web.xml
D. \webtop\main_component.xml
Answer: B

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NO.30 Given the following onInit() methods for two components:
In component A:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
ArgumentList args2= new ArgumentList();
args2.add("MyArg", "MyValue");
setComponentNested ("B", args2, getContext(), this);
}
In component B:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
String myVal = args.get("MyArg");
System.out.println (myVal);
}
The println statement returns null for myVal.
What is the likely cause of this?
A. ArgumentLists can not be passed between components.
B. ArgumentLists always start out empty in onInit() methods.
C. MyArg is not defined in the <params> element of the component definition B.
D. The ArgumentList for component A is independent of the ArgumentList for component B.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-465
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 169 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the Consistency Checker?
A. to check for object corruption within the repository and provide a report
B. to check and correct object corruption within the repository and provide a report
C. to check the file stores for corruption and provide a report
D. to check the repository for corruption, fix the problem, and provide a report
Answer: A

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NO.2 What must exist in an API script to dump your repository?
A. dump,c,dmr_content
B. dump,c,dmr_containment
C. create,c,dmi_dump_object_record
D. create,c,dm_dump_record
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do you delete a repository?
A. use Documentum Administrator to delete the files used for the repository's tablespaces
B. use Documentum Server Manager
C. select Configuration > Repository option in Documentum Administrator
D. use any database utility to drop the tablespaces used by the repository
Answer: B

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NO.4 A repository has an installation owner account 'dmadmin' and a repository owner account 'sop.'
What is the difference between these two accounts?
A. The Documentum installation owner and the repository owner accounts have identical roles.
B. The Documentum installation owner is a regular user in a repository; the repository owner has
administrative rights over the repository.
C. The Documentum installation owner is a superuser in the repository; the repository owner account
owns the database tables used by the repository.
D. While both users have administration privileges, the installation owner owns the repository database
tables.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A user has left your company. There is an object that is still checked out by that user.
How would you remove the lock from this document?
A. delete the user using Documentum Administrator and all the documents checked out to this user will
automatically have the lock removed
B. change the r_lock_owner attribute of the document to "dmadmin"; dmadmin will now own the
document and can cancel checkout
C. unlock the document using the API
D. check the document in using a superuser account
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a resource agent?
A. It is a JMX-based monitoring tool that is accessible using Documentum Administrator.
B. It is a feature of Application Builder, used to help manage lifecycles.
C. It is a process used in conjunction with the Index Server to provide full-text indexing.
D. It is a feature of WDK which allows administrators to more easily deploy components given to them by
a developer.
Answer: A

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NO.7 During the configuration of a repository you provide the following information: repository ID, repository
name, and database owner.
Where does Documentum store this information?
A. dfc.properties
B. server.ini
C. [repository name].ini
D. docbroker.ini
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which specific directories do the DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM environment variables represent in
a Content Server installation with one or more repositories?
A. DM_HOME is the base directory for all Content Server binaries and repository configurations;
DOCUMENTUM is the working directory used by server processes.
B. DM_HOME is the directory for the Content Server binaries; DOCUMENTUM is the base directory
under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored.
C. DM_HOME is the base directory under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored;
DOCUMENTUM is the directory for the Content Server binaries.
D. DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM have the same value and point to the base directory for all server
binaries and repository configurations.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement is FALSE regarding resource agents?
A. Resource agents allow you to specify a minimum log level to view.
B. Resource agents allow you to change configuration settings.
C. Resource agents provide another way to receive notifications.
D. Resource agents cannot execute operations.
Answer: D

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NO.10 When using a resource agent to view a log, which option CANNOT be used to sort the log entries?
A. Log level
B. Event type
C. Severity
D. From the first entry to the last entry
Answer: B

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NO.11 When installing the Content Server, the installer deploys several default services which run on the
Java Method Server.
Which services are deployed?
A. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS), Documentum
Messaging Services (DMS)
B. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
C. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Messaging Services (DMS), Documentum
Foundation Services (DFS)
D. Documentum Foundation Services (DFS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS)
Answer: B

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NO.12 After installing the Content Server, you change the default passphrase.
What utility script must be run when the Content Server is restarted?
A. dm_check_password
B. dm_crypto_boot
C. dm_crypto_create
D. dm_change_password
Answer: B

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NO.13 Your repository dump has just completed. <DUMP_RECORD_OBJECT_ID> is the object id of your
dm_dump_record.
Which DQL statement would you run to determine how many repository objects were copied into your
dump file?
A. select count(*) from dmi_dump_object_record where dump_object =
'<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
B. select count(*) from dm_sysobject where r_object_id in (select <DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID> from
dm_dump_record)
C. select count(*) from dm_dump_record where dump_object = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
D. select count(*) from dmr_content where r_object_id = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which user account will be used when running the Repository Configuration program?
A. superuser
B. installation owner
C. web user
D. database user
Answer: B

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NO.15 By default, what is stored specifically in the DOCUMENTUM\dba\secure directory?
A. keystore(s) for certificates used by LDAP over SSL
B. encrypted database user passwords for repository owners
C. encrypted passphrase for the Content Server installation
D. keystores used for Trusted Content Services
Answer: C

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NO.16 In addition to a supported OS, what is the minimal requirement for a successful Content Server
installation and repository configuration?
A. database software and Java SDK
B. Java SDK
C. database software, Java SDK, and application server
D. database software
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are the minimum prerequisite components for a Documentum Administrator installation on a
dedicated application server host?
A. database client, application server, and Java SDK
B. application server, Java SDK, and web server
C. application server and Java SDK
D. application server, Java SDK, PHP, and Perl
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are the minimal user account settings and access rights needed by the designated BOF Global
Registry user?
A. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder in the
repository.
B. The user has an OS or Directory Server account and has READ only access to the
/System/Modules/SBO folder in the repository.
C. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder and
the folders/documents in the repository that will be accessed using SBOs.
D. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the entire repository.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the correct API syntax for retrieving the r_object_id of a dm_document with the name, 'test1'?
A. retrieve,c,dm_folder where object_name='test1'
B. id,c,select dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
C. retrieve,c,select dm_document where object_name='test1'
D. id,c,dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
Answer: D

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NO.20 A user is not able to create a document in a repository.
How do you diagnose the problem?
A. check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory and check for sufficient database space
B. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient database space
C. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory
D. check that the server log is not full
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-329
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Technology Architect Backup and Recovery Solutions Design Exam)
Questions et réponses: 206 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a
benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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NO.2 The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following
requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

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NO.3 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to use the deduplication option. The requirement for a database
server in their enviroment is to perform deduplication backups for file system data and NetWorker tape
backups for database data. They want to allow a maximum of two parallel streams for file system backups
and a maximum of four steams for database backups.
How can this be accomplished?
A.
B.
C.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 0
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
D.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 4
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer
does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

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NO.5 Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is
not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation
will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar
clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files
consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of
space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be
expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

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NO.7 An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their
data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator
creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

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NO.8 As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server
managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an
application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery
site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

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NO.9 An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They
want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for
advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-598
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 177 Q&As

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NO.1 Which four account management actions can be performed from the EMC Client Manager interface?
A. Move clients to a new server Retire clients Move clients to a new domain View management log
B. Move clients to a new domain Retire clients Modify client group associations Schedule backups
C. View management log Modify replication Retire clients Move clients to a new server
D. View management log Retire clients Delete clients Browse clients
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which interface is used to start Avamar Client Manager?
A. Enterprise Manager
B. Command Line
C. cron job
D. Avamar Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is used by EMC Avamar to provide system-wide fault tolerance?
A. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and Replication
B. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and HFS check
C. Asynchronous crunching, Parity, RAIN, and Checkpoints
D. HFS check, RAIN, RAID, and Replication
Answer: A

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NO.4 A storage node in a multi-node Avamar server has failed and a replacement node has been added to
the grid. What is used to reconstruct the data on the new node?
A. RAIN
B. RAID
C. Checkpoint
D. Replication
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which port on the Avamar server does the client connect to when performing a backup with encryption
enabled?
A. 27000
B. 28001
C. 28002
D. 29000
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which size Avamar Gen4 storage node is supported for a RAIN configuration?
A. 1.0 TB
B. 1.3 TB
C. 2.6 TB
D. 3.9 TB
Answer: D

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NO.7 For each file that is backed up in an EMC Avamar system, how many total bytes are added to the file
cache.?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 40
D. 44
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are three types of EMC Avamar hashes?
A. Composite, Root, and Atomic
B. Root, Atomic, and Index
C. Composite, Atomic, and Stripe
D. Root, Atomic, and Parity
Answer: A

EMC   E20-598   E20-598   E20-598   E20-598   E20-598

NO.9 The EMC Avamar client needs to backup a file and has performed sticky-byte factoring. This
results in the following:
-Seven (7) chunks that will compress at 30%-Four (4) that will compress at 23%-Two (2) chunks at 50%
compression
How many chunks will be compressed prior to hashing?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a characteristic of variable block deduplication?
A. Better granularity and more efficiency
B. Commonly provided in snapshot technologies
C. Small changes require all segments to change
D. Most common deduplication method
Answer: A

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NO.11 Based on the exhibit, which type of backup configuration is represented?
A. Image Level Backup with VADP (vSphere)
B. VMware Guest Level Backup
C. VMware Consolidated Backup (VCB)
D. VMware Console Backup
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-598   E20-598   E20-598

NO.12 A customer is unable to connect to their EMC Avamar server when using the Avamar Administrator
GUI. If default settings are being used, which port must be open for a successful connection?
A. 5555
B. 7778
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.13 In EMC Avamar 6.0, which tool is used to completely move clients to a new Avamar server?
A. Client Manager
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Activation Manager
D. Avamar Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.14 How many simultaneous client connections per node will an EMC Avamar server support?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 18
D. 25
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which processes are started automatically during an EMC Avamar Windows client installation?
A. avagent and avscc only
B. avtar and avagent only
C. avtar, avagent, and avscc
D. avscc and avtar only
Answer: A

EMC   E20-598   E20-598

NO.16 Which time zone is used on EMC Avamar nodes?
A. Local time on the utility node; GMT/UTC on the storage nodes
B. GMT/UTC on the utility node; local time on the storage nodes
C. All node types use the local time
D. All nodes use GMT/UTC time
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which hash type represents an individual data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A. Atomic
B. Root
C. Composite
D. Metadata
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which tool is used to move a client to a new domain in EMC Avamar 6.0?
A. Client Manager
B. Activation Manager
C. Enterprise Manager
D. Installation Manager
Answer: A

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NO.19 In an EMC Avamar backup operation, which process always produces identical chunk results given the
same data?
A. Sticky-byte factoring
B. Compression
C. File caching
D. Hashing
Answer: A

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NO.20 On an EMC Avamar server, what is the file extension of stripes that contain backup chunks?
A. *.dat
B. *.usd
C. *.chd
D. *.cdt
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-818
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is planning an SRDF/Star configuration as shown in the exhibit. The customer wants to
switch production to the synchronous target in the event of a workload site fault.
In addition to the Base and SRDF Solutions Enabler licenses, which licenses are recommended at the
synchronous target?
A.TimeFinder/Clone and TimeFinder/CG
B.TimeFinder/Mirror and TimeFinder/Clone
C.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/CG
D.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/Mirror
Answer:A

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NO.2 In the event of a physical disk spindle failure, how would a customer with Microsoft SQL Server
maximize availability?
A.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 6 volumes
B.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 5 volumes
C.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 5 volumes
D.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 1-protected volumes
Answer:A

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NO.3 A customer's SQL database has been experiencing performance degradation every time a particular
query is run. When designing the storage layout, all user databases were properly sized according to
EMC best practices.
Which storage configuration could be the source of the problem?
A.Tempdb and user databases are sharing spindles
B.MDF and LDF files are not sharing spindles
C.RAID 5 protection has been used for Tempdb
D.Data files are spread over striped metavolumes
Answer:A

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NO.4 An SRDF/Star solution has been proposed. The customer is slow to accept the solution because they
are concerned about the reliability of the RDF daemon.
How would you address the customer's concern?
A.RDF daemons will be deployed on multiple management stations at the workload site. The RDF
daemons will cooperate with each other.
B.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array and has built-in redundancy.
C.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array. If the workload site RDF daemon fails, the RDF
daemon from one of the other sites will take over.
D.RDF daemons will be deployed on one management station at each of the three sites. If the workload
site RDF daemon fails, one of the RDF daemons from the other two sites will take over.
Answer:A

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NO.5 A new Cascaded SRDF customer is running in SRDF/A mode from the source (R1) site to the
disk-based secondary (R21) site. In this scenario, which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and
the R2 sites?
A.Adaptive Copy Disk
B.Adaptive Copy Write Pending
C.Synchronous
D.Asynchronous
Answer:A

EMC   certification E20-818   certification E20-818   E20-818 examen

NO.6 A Microsoft SQL Server database administrator wants to execute backups using Solutions Enabler SRM
functionality. Which ODBC variable(s) needs to be set to enable the symioctl and symrdb command set?
A.SYMCLI_RDB "CONNECT" and "TYPE" environment variables
B.SYMCLI_RDB "NAME" and "TYPE" environment variables
C.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "Connect" to the database "username/password"
D.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "TYPE" variable to "sqlserver"
Answer:A

EMC examen   E20-818   E20-818   E20-818   E20-818 examen   E20-818

NO.7 A customer is running Concurrent SRDF/Star. The disaster recovery (DR) plan allows for the workload
to be switched to either the synchronous site or the asynchronous site. In addition, part of their DR plan is
to enable SRDF/Star protection once the workload site comes back online.
Which advice should be given to the customer?
A.If production fails over to the synchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration after
the return of the original workload site.
B.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is not possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
C.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
D.If production fails over to the asynchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration
after the return of the original workload site.
Answer:A

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NO.8 A customer wants to use TimeFinder/Exchange Integration Module (TF/EIM) to create daily local
replicas of a critical Microsoft Exchange 2007 mailbox server. Using Terminal Services, they connect
remotely to the backup server and execute the following command:
exbackup2007 -v -vss -s [servername\] -preestablish
The command runs up until the point where TF/EIM attempts to mount the volumes, then it fails. Why is
the process unable to complete?
A.Exbackup is not supported using a terminal session
B.Correct VSS Provider was not installed
C."copyonly" switch must be specified the first time a backup is run
D.Exbackup does not have the permissions needed to run on the backup host
Answer:A

EMC   E20-818   E20-818

NO.9 A customer has implemented Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 in an SRDF environment with replicas
being taken at the disaster recovery (DR) site. During testing of this solution, they have failed over
Exchange operations to the DR site. The Exchange mailbox server appears to come online, but user
mailboxes are inaccessible. The Exchange Management Console shows all mailboxes marked with a
small red "x" over the mailbox icons.
Which course of action will resolve this issue?
A.Ensure the Exchange mailbox server at the DR site can communicate with an Active Directory Domain
Controller
B.Recover the database from the BCV copies available at the DR site
C.Ensure that the World Wide Web service on the Exchange server at the DR site has started
successfully
D.Recover the database from the remote BCV copies available at the primary site
Answer:A

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NO.10 A customer has been creating replicas of several Microsoft Exchange mailbox servers using Replication
Manager. They have recently added a new Exchange Server 2007 mailbox host to the environment.
In addition, the customer has created a scheduled job to create replicas of five storage groups in
consecutive order. Since doing so, they notice that the newly added replica jobs seem to take a very long
time to complete.
What is the source of the problem?
A.NTFS volumes containing the databases were not formatted with the correct cluster size
B.Replication Manager job should have been configured to create the replicas simultaneously
C.Latest Replication Manager Client Service Pack was not installed on the Exchange server
D.Exchange management utilities were not installed on the Replication Manager mount host
Answer:A

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NO.11 A customer is migrating their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from a NAS back end to a new
Symmetrix V-Max SE array. As illustrated in the exhibit, perfmon was used to create a log view of an
average day's activity against the database LUN of the busiest datastore in the Exchange environment.
This will serve as the performance benchmark for all other database LUNs. There are an additional four
mailbox databases on this server.
How many RAID 1-protected 15k rpm spindles are required to satisfy the performance needs of the
customer for all the mailbox databases on this server?
A.10
B.26
C.38
D.50
Answer:D

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NO.12 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A customer is migrating their SQL server from a NAS back end to a new RAID 1-protected Symmetrix
V-Max SE array. Perfmon was used to create a log view of an average day's activity against the database
LUN as represented in the exhibit. Unfortunately the database's data file and transaction log are located
on the same LUN. The database administrator has informed you that this database typically processes 25
GB worth of transactions over the course of their 12-hour business day.
Which discount in IOPS should be taken before determining the number of spindles required for the data
file LUN?
A.75
B.152
C.176
D.365
Answer:A

EMC   E20-818   E20-818   E20-818   E20-818   E20-818

NO.13 A composite group spanning two Symmetrix arrays is set up to run SRDF/Star using Cascaded SRDF
as illustrated in the exhibit. What is one of the necessary conditions before the SRDF daemon at Site A
will perform an MSC cycle switch?
A.Transmit delta sets from Site B to Site C have finished
B.SDDF bitmaps have been swapped at Site A
C.Invalid track count between Sites A and C is less than 30000
D.SYMCLI_STAR_ALLOW_CASCADED_CONFIGURATION option must be enabled in the option file
Answer:A

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NO.14 An Microsoft Exchange administrator has recently encountered an issue with one of the databases in
their Exchange 2007 environment. The decision was made to perform a partial restore of only the single
database.
Based on EMC and Microsoft best practice, what are the proper ordered steps needed to complete this
task?
A.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Restore the database replica. 3) Remove the .chk
file from the system path folder. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
B.1) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 2) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
C.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
D.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Remount all databases in the storage group. 4) Restore the database replica.
Answer:A

EMC examen   E20-818   E20-818 examen   E20-818

NO.15 Refer to the Exhibit.You have been asked to configure a Cascaded SRDF solution at a customer site.
The production site will be at Site A, the synchronous target will be at Site B, and the asynchronous target
at Site C.
Which kind of RDF devices will be needed at each site?
A.R1 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
B.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R22 at Site C
C.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
D.R1 at Site A, R2 at Site B, and R21 at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.16 A customer wants to use Replication Manager to replicate and mount, at the file group level, a Microsoft
SQL Server database. What must be done before creating a Replication Manager file group replication
job?
A.Ensure no other data files are on the same volume with the selected file group
B.Copy the log files along with the file group data files
C.Use the recover database option when mounting a file group
D.Create a TimeFinder device group that contains only the file group data files
Answer:A

EMC   certification E20-818   E20-818

NO.17 A customer has three data centers that are used to run SRDF/AR multi-hop on Symmetrix DMX-4
arrays.
Production is located at Site A
Secondary site is located at Site B
Tertiary site is located at Site C
In the event of a Site A failure, the customer wants to be able to fail over to Site C while retaining the
ability to have remote data protection. Which solution will offer the best RPO and RTO for this customer?
A.Cascaded SRDF
B.Latest version of SRDF/AR
C.Concurrent SRDF
D.SRDF/EDP
Answer:A

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NO.18 Group Name Services (GNS) is enabled in an SRDF/Star solution. What is a benefit of GNS in a
SRDF/Star environment?
A.Facilitates management of SRDF/Star when there are multiple management hosts at each location
B.Distributes the Star internal definition file to the Symmetrix arrays at both target locations
C.Propagates the composite group definitions over SRDF links
D.Restarts the SRDF daemon in the event it stops unexpectedly
Answer:A

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NO.19 A customer wants to provide remote disaster recovery (DR) for several critical mailbox servers in their
Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. Local recoverability is provided by creating replicas of their
critical databases.
The customer's DR site is located 20 km away. They have already provisioned the necessary failover host
on the DR site, as well as the required Active Directory infrastructure needed to support a failover.
However, they want to minimize the total number of database copies required to provide basic failover
capabilities for the Exchange server.
Which solution would you recommend to provide remote point-of-failure recovery with the fewest local
and remote database copies?
A.R1-R2-BCV
B.Mixed Mirroring
C.STD-R1BCV-R2-BRBCV
D.STD-R1BCV-R2
Answer:A

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NO.20 As reflected in the exhibit, a customer has a Cascaded SRDF/Star environment. Site B fails and they
undertake a reconfiguration to provide remote data protection between Sites A and C.
What is used to determine the invalid tracks that must be moved from Site A to Site C?
A.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A
B.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A and a bitmap at Site C
C.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site B
D.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site C
Answer:A

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