IT simulation d'examen de certification exerce questions du test: 九月 2013

2013年9月29日星期日

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur PMI PMI-RMP

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Code d'Examen: PMI-RMP
Nom d'Examen: PMI (PMI Risk Management Professional)
Questions et réponses: 273 Q&As

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NO.1 Your organization has named you the project manager of the JKN Project. This project has a BAC of
$1,500,000 and it is expected to last 18 months. Management has agreed that if the schedule baseline
has a variance of more than five percent then you will need to crash the project. What happens when the
project manager crashes a project?
A. Project risks will increase.
B. The project will take longer to complete, but risks will diminish.
C. Project costs will increase.
D. The amount of hours a resource can be used will diminish.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which risk response is acceptable for both positive and negative risk events?
A. Transferring
B. Acceptance
C. Sharing
D. Enhancing
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are working with Anna on your project to determine and map the probability distributions of risk
within the project. You have indicated that you will use the uniform distribution method for a portion of the
project. Which part of your project is most likely to have a uniform risk distribution?
A. Late completion stages of a project
B. Project phases that deal with "cutover" technologies
C. Early concept stage of design
D. Project initiating
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and
quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase
project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would
best help you?
A. Monitor and control project risks
B. Create a risk governance approach
C. Create the project risk register
D. Plan risk responses
Answer: D

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NO.5 What risk identification technique allows participants to identify the project risks and to remain
anonymous?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Assumptions analysis
C. Surveys
D. Delphi technique
Answer: D

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NO.6 Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response
planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response.
Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk
responses she has created?
A. The level of detail is set by historical information.
B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking.
C. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk.
D. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several
stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share
information on the project risks?
A. Risk Management Plan
B. Stakeholder management strategy
C. Resource Management Plan
D. Communications Management Plan
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are the project manager of the GYH project for your organization. Management has asked you to
begin identifying risks and to use an information gathering technique. Which one of the following risk
identification approaches is an information gathering technique?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Assumptions analysis
C. SWOT analysis
D. Documentation reviews
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are the project manager of the KJH Project and are working with your project team to plan the risk
responses. Consider that your project has a budget of $500,000 and is expected to last six months. Within
the KJH Project you have identified a risk event that has a probability of .70 and has a cost impact of
$350,000. When it comes to creating a risk response for this event what is the risk exposure of the event
that must be considered for the cost of the risk response?
A. The risk exposure of the event is $245,000.
B. The risk exposure of the event is $500,000.
C. The risk exposure of the event is $350,000.
D. The risk exposure of the event is $850,000.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Tom is the project manager for his organization. In his project he has recently finished the risk
response planning. He tells his manager that he will now need to update the cost and schedule baselines.
Why would the risk response planning cause Tom the need to update the cost and schedule baselines?
A. New or omitted work as part of a risk response can cause changes to the cost and/or schedule
baseline.
B. Risk responses protect the time and investment of the project.
C. Risk responses may take time and money to implement.
D. Baselines should not be updated, but refined through versions.
Answer: A

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NO.11 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders,
some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about
risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be
the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders?
A. Risk Response Plan
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Communications Management Plan
D. Project Management Plan
Answer: C

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NO.12 John works as a project manager for ABD project. He and his team, are working on the following
activities:
Relative ranking or priority list of project risks
Watchlists of low priority risk
Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results
On which of the following processes is John working on?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: A

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NO.13 Virginia is the project manager for her organization. She has hired a subject matter expert to interview
the project stakeholders on certain identified risks within the project. The subject matter expert will assess
the risk event with what specific goal in mind?
A. To determine the level of probability and impact for each risk event
B. To determine the bias of the risk event based on each person interviewed
C. To determine the probability and cost of the risk event
D. To determine the validity of each risk event
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are a risk auditor for your company. You are reviewing the contract types a project manager has
used in her project. Of the following, which contract type has the most risk for the project manager as a
buyer?
A. Cost plus percentage of costs
B. Time and material
C. Cost plus incentive fee
D. Fixed-price, incentive fee
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are the project manager of the NHJ project for your company. This project has a budget at
completion of $1,650,000 and you are 60 percent complete. According to the project plan, however, the
project should be 65 percent complete. In this project you have spent $995,000 to reach this point of
completion. There is a risk that this project may be late so you have taken some measures to recover the
project schedule. Management would like to know, based on current performance, what the estimate at
completion for this project will be. What is the estimate at completion?
A. $1,650,000
B. $1,666,667
C. $663,333
D. -$8,333
Answer: B

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NO.16 Frank is the project manager of the NHQ project for his company. Frank is working with the project
team, key stakeholders, and several subject matter experts on risks dealing with the new materials in the
project. Frank wants to utilize a risk analysis method that will help the team to make decisions in the
presence of the current uncertainty surrounding the new materials. Which risk analysis approach can
Frank use to create an approach to make decisions in the presence of uncertainty?
A. Monte Carlo Technique
B. Qualitative risk analysis process
C. Quantitative risk analysis process
D. Delphi Technique
Answer: C

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NO.17 Jenny is the project manager of the NHJ Project for her company. She has identified several positive
risk events within the project and she thinks these events can save the project time and money. You, a
new team member wants to know that how many risk responses are available for a positive risk event.
What will Jenny reply to you?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Seven
D. Acceptance is the only risk response for positive risk events.
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are the project manager of the GHE Project. You have identified the following risks with the
characteristics as shown in the following figure: How much capital should the project set aside for the risk
contingency reserve?
A. $142,000
B. $41,750
C. $23,750
D. $232,000
Answer: C

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NO.19 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large
warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some
time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that
you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete
training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be
known as what term?
A. Team development
B. Benchmarking
C. Cost of conformance to quality
D. Cost-benefits analysis
Answer: C

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NO.20 Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has
offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible
that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project.
Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the
project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project?
A. Acceptance
B. Enhance
C. Exploiting
D. Sharing
Answer: A

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NO.21 Sammy is the project manager for her organization. She would like to rate each risk based on its
probability and affect on time, cost, and scope. Harry, a project team member, has never done this before
and thinks Sammy is wrong to attempt this approach. Harry says that an accumulative risk score should
be created, not three separate risk scores. Who is correct in this scenario?
A. Harry is correct, because the risk probability and impact considers all objectives of the project.
B. Harry iscorrect, the risk probability and impact matrix is the only approach to risk assessment.
C. Sammy is correct, because organizations can create risk scores for each objective of the project.
D. Sammy is correct, because she is the project manager.
Answer: C

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NO.22 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the
project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with
these risk events?
A. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
B. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
C. The events should be entered into the risk register.
D. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
Answer: C

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NO.23 You are project manager for ABD project. You, with your team, are working on the following activities:
Probabilistic analysis of a project.
Probability of achieving cost and time objectives.
Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results.
On which of the following processes are you working on?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Identify Risks
Answer: B

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NO.24 Tracy is the project manager of the NLT Project for her company. The NLT Project is scheduled to last
14 months and has a budget at completion of $4,555,000. Tracy's organization will receive a bonus of
$80,000 per day that the project is completed early up to $800,000. Tracy realizes that there are several
opportunities within the project to save on time by crashing the project work. Crashing the project is what
type of risk response?
A. Transference
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Enhance
Answer: D

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NO.25 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You want to create a visual diagram, which can depict
the resources that will be used within the project. Which of the following diagrams will you create to
accomplish the task?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. RACI chart
Answer: C

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NO.26 There are five outputs of the risk monitoring and controlling process. Which one of the following is NOT
an output of the process?
A. Organizational process assetsupdates
B. Risk register updates
C. Vendor contracts
D. Change requests
Answer: C

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NO.27 Examine the figure given below.
What will be the expected monetary value of Risk C?
A. -$113,750
B. $175,000 if the risk event actually happens
C. -$175,000
D. -$27,000
Answer: D

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NO.28 Shelly is the project manager of the BUF project for her company. In this project Shelly needs to
establish some rules to reduce the influence of risk bias during the qualitative risk analysis process. What
method can Shelly take to best reduce the influence of risk bias?
A. Group stakeholders according to positive and negative stakeholders and then complete the risk
analysis
B. Determine the risk root cause rather than the person identifying the risk events
C. Establish risk boundaries
D. Establish definitions of the level of probability and impact of risk event
Answer: D

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NO.29 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing that the
risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Risk register
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Project document updates
Answer: A

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NO.30 You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on
some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a
probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
B. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
C. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
D. Information on prior, similar projects
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 200-530
Nom d'Examen: Zend-Technologies (Zend PHP 5.3 Certification)
Questions et réponses: 254 Q&As

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NO.1 The following form is loaded in a recent browser and submitted, with the second list element selected:
<form method="post">
<select name="list">
<option>one</option>
<option>two</option>
<option>three</option>
</select>
</form>
In the server-side PHP code to deal with the form data, what is the value of $_POST ['list']?
A. 1
B. 2
C. two
D. null (since the <code> value attribute of the list has not been set)
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the output of the following code?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D

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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
What is the name of the key in $_FILES['name'] that contains the number of bytes of the uploaded file?
Answer: size

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NO.4 What is the output of the following code?
echo '1' . (print '2') + 3;
A. 123
B. 213
C. 142
D. 214
E. Syntax error
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which requirements need NOT be met so that file uploads work?
A. The PHP directive file_uploads must be set to on
B. The form's method attribute must be set to "post"
C. Sate mode must be turned off so that the uploaded file an be written to the server
D. The form's enctype attribute must be set to "multipart/form-data"
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the ideal method of copying data between two opened files?
A. copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B. copy(destination_file, $source_file);
C. stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D. stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E. stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C

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NO.8 An object can be counted with count() and sizeof() if it ..
A. implements ArrayAccess
B. has a public__count() method
C. was cast to an object from an array
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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- It must implement the count() method (no underscores)

NO.9 CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 1

NO.10 Consider the following two files. When you run test.php, what would the output look like?
A. 12, 12
B. 12, 24
C. 24, 12
D. 24, 24
E. PHP Fetal error. Cannot redeclare strlen()
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which PHP function relieves a 1st of HTTP headers that have been sent as part of the HTTP response
or are ready to be sent?
A. header()
B. headers()
C. header_list()
D. header_sent()
E. getresponseheaders0
Answer: C

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NO.12 CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 2

NO.13 Which of the following statements about PHP is true? (Choose 3)
A. A final class can be derived.
B. A final class may be instantiated.
C. A class with a final function may be derived.
D. Static functions can be final.
E. Properties can be final.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 Which of the following rules must every correct XML document adhere to? (Choose 2)
A. It has to be well-formed.
B. It has to be valid.
C. It has to be associated to a DTD.
D. It may only contain UTF-8 encoded characters.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 What will be the result of the following operation?
array_combine(array("A","B","C"), array(1,2,3));
A. array("A","B",C",1,2,3)
B. array(1,2,3,"A","B",C")
C. array("A"=>1,"B"=>2,"C"=>3)
D. array(1=>"A",2=>"B",3=>"C")
E. array(1,2,3)
Answer: C

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NO.16 CORRECT TEXT
Which PHP function sets a cookie whose value does not get URL encoded when sending it to the
browser?
Answer: setrawcookie()

NO.17 A/hen comparing prepared statements and regular, application-constructed SQL statements, which of
the following is true?
A. Prepared statements are faster
B. Prepared statements are always shorter
C. Prepared statements are more secure
D. Prepared statements are easier to develop
E. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.18 An HTML form contains this form element
<input type="file" name="myFile" />
When this form is submitted, the following PHP code gets executed:
move_uploaded_file(
$_FILES['myFile']['tmp_name'],
'uploads/' . $_FILES['myFile']['name']);
Which of the following actions must be taken before this code may go into production?
(Choose 2)
A. Check with is_uploaded_file() whether the uploaded file $_FILES['myFile']['tmp_name'] is valid
B. Sanitize the file name in $_FILES['myFile']['name'] because this value is not consistent among web
browsers
C. Check the charset encoding of the HTTP request to see whether it matches the encoding of the
uploaded file
D. Sanitize the file name in $_FILES['myFile']['name'] because this value could be forged
E. Use $HTTP_POST_FILES instead of $_FILES to maintain upwards compatibility
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 Which of the following is used to find all PHP files under a certain directory?
A. PHPIterator
B. RecursiveTreelterator
C. RecursiveDirectorylterator
D. SplTempFileObject
Answer: C

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NO.20 How can the line on which HTTP headers were sent inside a script be determined?
A. Using the headers_sent() function.
B. Using the output_start() function.
C. Using the ob_start() function.
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A

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NO.21 You'd like to use the class MyDBConnection that's defined in the
MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace, but you want to minimize *as much as
possible* the length of the class name you have to type. What would you do?
A. Import the MyGreatFramework namespace
B. Import the MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace
C. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer\MyDBConnection to a shorter name
D. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer to a shorter name
Answer: B

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This removes the need to prefix the class with the namespace name. You can refer to the class simply as
®M y DBC onnec ti o ¡¯

NO.22 Assuming UTF-8 encoding, what is the value of $count?
A. false
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: B

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NO.23 What is the output of the following code?
A. 0
B. An integer overflow error
C. A warning, because $x1 is not set
D. A warning, because $x2 is not set
E. A floating-point overflow error
F. Nothing
Answer: D

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NO.24 CORRECT TEXT
Which DOMElement property provides a reference to the list of Element's children?
Answer: childNodes

Zend-Technologies   certification 200-530   200-530 examen   certification 200-530

NO.25 Which of the following code snippets writes the content of the °sou r ce .t x¡± t ¡ °t arg e t . xt
A. file_put_contents("target.txt", fopen("source.txt", "r"));
B. file_put_contents("target.txt", readfile("source.txt"));
C. file_put_contents("target.txt", join(file("source.txt"), ""));
D. file_put_contents("target.txt", file_get_contents("source.txt"));
E. $handle = fopen("target.txt", "w+"); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents("source.txt")); fclose($handle);
Answer: A,D,E

certification Zend-Technologies   200-530   200-530 examen   200-530 examen   200-530 examen   200-530

NO.26 When setting HTTP headers from PHP, how can you make sure that your application sends the same
header twice, with different values?
A. Set the second argument of the header() function to false
B. PHP does that automatically
C. One kind of header may only be sent once
D. Use the header_add() function
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   200-530   200-530 examen   certification 200-530   200-530

NO.27 What is the return value of the following code?
strpos("me myself and I", "m", 2)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 0
E. 1
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies examen   certification 200-530   200-530 examen

NO.28 What tags can always be used to begin a PHP script? (Choose 2)
A. <?php
B. <?
C. <%
D. <%php
E. <script language="php">
Answer: A,E

Zend-Technologies examen   certification 200-530   200-530   200-530 examen   200-530

NO.29 An HTML form has two buttons. After submitting the form, how could you determine with PHP which
button was clicked?
A. An HTML form may only have one button.
B. Hook up JavaScript the form to add a value to the URL depending on which button has been clicked.
C. Put the two buttons in individual form elements with different action attribute.
D. Assign name and value attributes to each button and use $_GET or $_POST to find out which button
has been clicked.
Answer: D

certification Zend-Technologies   certification 200-530   certification 200-530   200-530   200-530

NO.30 You want to extract the pieces of a date string, which looks like this: "2005-11-02". Which of the
following pieces of code will property assign $year, $month and $day with their respective values?
A. sscanf("2005-11-02", '%d-%d-%d', $year, $month, $day);
B. scan("2005-11-02", '%d-%d-%d', $year, $month, $day);
C. sscanf('%d-%d-%d', "2005-11-02", $year, $month, $day);
D. sscan($year, $month, $date '%d-%d-%d', "2005-11-02");
Answer: A

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Le meilleur matériel de formation examen FileMaker FM0-301

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Code d'Examen: FM0-301
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Filemaker7 Developer essentials exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Consider the return delimited data in the Contact field of a FileMaker Pro 7 database are:
John Smith
Mary Jones
Julie Hyde
Which three formulas could be used to extract the string Mary Jones from Contact? (Choose three.)
A. Middle (Contact ; 12 ; 10)
B. MiddleValues (Contact ; 2)
C. MiddleWords (Contact ; 3 ; 2)
D. MiddleWords (Contact ; 3 ; 4)
E. MiddleValues (Contact ; 2 ; 1)
Answer: ACE

FileMaker   certification FM0-301   FM0-301 examen

NO.2 Which three statements about field validation are true in FileMaker Pro 7? (Choose three.)
A. Fields can only be validated by a single criterion.
B. Field validation warnings may be triggered by scripts.
C. Users can be prevented from overriding the validation warning.
D. Users can be presented with a specific message that will see when a field fails validation.
E. A script can be specified to run when manually entered field data fails validation.
Answer: BCD

FileMaker   certification FM0-301   FM0-301   certification FM0-301   FM0-301 examen

NO.3 Given the following formula:
If( DayOfWeek (myDate) = 3 and (myField = 13 or myField = 23) ;
Get (FoundCount) ; Get (TotalRecordCount))
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If myField is 13, the test to see if myField = 23 will not be performed.
B. If DayOfWeek(myDate) returns 6, neither of the tests involving myField will be performed.
C. If DayOfWeek(myDate) returns 3 and myField returns 8, then this formula will return the total number
of records in the found set.
D. Regardless of whether the test is true or false, both Get(FoundCount) and Get(TotalRecordCount) will
be evaluated during execution of this formula.
Answer: AB

FileMaker examen   FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
On a FileMaker Pro 7 layout based on the table occurrence Teachers, a portal is designed to show all the
students based on the table occurrence Students. Which two statements are true about adding a new
student in the portal? (Choose two.)
A. The table occurrence Students must be directly connected to Teachers.
B. All the relationships from Teachers to Students must be set to be able to create records.
C. Only the relationship between Enrollment and Students must allow creation of related records.
D. All the relationships between the table occurrence Teachers and the table occurrence Students must
use the = operator.
Answer: CD

FileMaker examen   certification FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.5 A database has two tables, Planet and Moon. Moons are related to a single planet and their
relationship is set to delete related records in the Moon table when a Planet record is deleted. Which
two things happen when the Planet table is deleted from the Tables tab of the Define Database dialog?
(Choose two.)
A. All data in the Planet table are deleted.
B. All records in the Moon table are deleted.
C. All records in the Moon table remain unaffected.
D. All records in the Moon table are deleted if the option to "Also remove occurrences of these tables in
the graph" was selected when deleting the Planet table.
E. All table occurrences of both Planet and Moon tables are removed if the option to "Also remove
occurrences of these tables in the graph" was selected when deleting the Planet table.
Answer: AC

certification FileMaker   certification FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.6 Which three are affected by changing the behavior of a field to navigate to the next field using Tab,
Enter and Return in FileMaker Pro 7? (Choose three.)
A. exiting a record
B. executing a find
C. scripted navigation
D. navigating tab order
E. continuing a paused script
Answer: ABE

FileMaker examen   certification FM0-301   FM0-301 examen   certification FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.7 You want to sort related records within a portal in a FileMaker Pro 7 database. What two methods
allow you to do this? (Choose two.)
A. select Sort by in the Edit Value List dialog
B. select Sort records in the Edit Relationship dialog
C. select Sort portal records in the Portal Setup dialog
D. select Sort records for the portal's table occurrence in the Specify Table dialog
E. select the Records>Sort Records... menu item, then select the portal's table occurrence in the Sort
Records dialog
Answer: BC

certification FileMaker   FM0-301 examen   FM0-301 examen   certification FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.8 A number field in FileMaker Pro 7 called AmountPaid is set to auto-enter the following formula:.
The Do not replace existing value of field (if any) option is unchecked.
Which statement is true?
A. The calculation will only be evaluated the first time a value is entered into AmountPaid .
B. A user will not be able to manually edit the field once the calculation has been evaluated.
C. If the value in the AmountDue field is changed, the AmountPaid field will be re-evaluated.
D. The calculation will prevent a user from entering an incorrect value into the AmoundPaid field.
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301   certification FM0-301

NO.9 Which three statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 7? (Choose three.)
A. Indexing improves the speed at which finds are performed.
B. Value lists require at least one of any field they reference to be indexed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A value index, used in establishing relationships, stores up to 60 primary characters or digits per
return-delimited line.
E. Using Unicode or ASCII as the default language by which a field is indexed causes sorts on that field to
be case sensitive.
Answer: ABE

FileMaker   FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
You want to build a FileMaker Pro 7 database that models a business organizational chart. One person
may manage no one or many people. One person may be managed by at most one other person.
You want to build the system in such a way that a single layout showing information about a person can
display both the name of the current person's manager (if any) and the names of all people managed by
the current person.
What is the minimum number of tables you must define in the Tables tab of the Define Database dialog to
construct the layout?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

FileMaker examen   certification FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.11 What is the maximum number of characters that can be entered or imported into a text field in
FileMaker Pro 7?
A. 64 thousand
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. 1 trillion
E. Number of characters is limited only by disk space.
Answer: C

FileMaker   certification FM0-301   FM0-301 examen   FM0-301   FM0-301   FM0-301 examen

NO.12 Which statement is true in FileMaker Pro 7?
A. The Save record changes automatically layout option does not apply to users with [Full Access]
privileges.
B. On a layout by layout basis, you can specify whether record changes made in Browse mode will be
saved automatically.
C. On a layout by layout basis, you can specify whether changes made to the layout when exiting Layout
mode will be saved automatically.
D. If the Save record changes automatically option has been turned off for a layout, then users will be
prompted to save their changes only when exiting the layout.
Answer: B

FileMaker   FM0-301   FM0-301   certification FM0-301   FM0-301   certification FM0-301

NO.13 Which two statements about relationships are true in FileMaker Pro 7? (Choose two.)
A. The > operator only works using numeric match fields.
B. You can build a relationship using multiple match fields.
C. It is possible to create a valid relationship where one match field is unindexed.
D. A table occurrence must be connected to at least one other table occurrence.
E. When enabling the option, "Allow creation of records in this table via this relationship", only =, >=,
<= will properly populate match keys.
Answer: BC

FileMaker   FM0-301 examen   FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the FileMaker Pro 7 Relationships Graph shown in the exhibit, which table occurrence should be
assigned to a layout that contains a portal that shows all students for all of a teacher's classes?
A. Classes
B. Advisors
C. Teachers
D. Enrollment
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.15 Click the Exhibit button
Consider a FileMaker Pro 7 database with two tables called Salesperson and Order, and a relationship
between the two tables based on a SalespersonID field. The relationship is configured as shown in the
exhibit. There is a layout called Salesperson Detail, based on the Salesperson table occurrence, with a
portal showing Order records via the above relationship.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Deleting a Salesperson record also deletes all related Order records.
B. It is possible to create new Order records by importing data into the Salesperson table.
C. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
D. Users may create new Order records by entering data into the portal on the Salesperson Detail layout
E. It is possible to create a new Salesperson record using a Set Field [ ] script step in a script that runs in
the context of the Order table.
F. It is possible to create a new Salesperson record by typing into a related salesperson field displayed on
a layout that is based on the Order table.
Answer: DEF

FileMaker   FM0-301 examen   certification FM0-301   certification FM0-301

NO.16 If a field in FileMaker Pro 7 has been set to validate Always, which three actions will trigger validation
on that field? (Choose three.)
A. importing data into that field
B. exporting data from that field
C. editing data in the field using Instant Web Publishing
D. clicking into the field, then immediately exiting the field
E. attempting to change the value of the field using a Set Field[ ] script step
Answer: ACE

FileMaker   FM0-301   FM0-301   certification FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.17 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 7?
A. 125
B. 250
C. 350
D. 500
E. The number is limited only by server hardware.
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-301   FM0-301 examen   FM0-301 examen

NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
You have a FileMaker Pro 7 layout based on the table occurrence of Classes. You have a portal showing
records from the table occurrence Students.
What happens if you place the field Students::Name into the portal?
A. The field displays <Field Missing> .
B. The field displays an enrolled student's name in each row of the portal.
C. The field displays the first matching student's name in every portal row.
D. The field displays an enrolled student's name in each row of the portal only if the student name is
calculated in the Enrollment table.
Answer: B

FileMaker examen   certification FM0-301   certification FM0-301   FM0-301

NO.19 Consider a FileMaker Pro 7 database with the following tables and fields:
Using only Cartesian (cross or x ) relationships between occurrences of these tables, sorting if necessary,
which two actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. determine the mode of the order amount
B. determine the date of the most recent order
C. display all records from the Customer table in a portal
D. create a value list that shows all orders for a chosen customer
E. create a portal to show one record for each product that has ever been ordered
Answer: BC

FileMaker   certification FM0-301   FM0-301   certification FM0-301

NO.20 Consider two FileMaker Pro 7 files, Alpha and Beta, where a table from Beta appears as an externally
referenced table occurrence on Alpha's Relationships Graph. Which three statements are true? (Choose
three.)
A. Layouts in Alpha can display data from Beta.
B. Alpha can contain multiple valid file references to Beta.
C. It is impossible to lock records in both Alpha and Beta simultaneously.
D. Layouts from Beta cannot be displayed in the same window as layouts from Alpha.
E. A table occurrence from Beta is required on Alpha's Relationships Graph in order to call a script in Beta
from Alpha.
Answer: ABD

FileMaker   FM0-301   FM0-301 examen   FM0-301

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Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur XML Master I10-001

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Code d'Examen: I10-001
Nom d'Examen: XML Master (XML Master Basic V2)
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 Choose the statement about HTML or XML that is incorrect.
A. In HTML, the types and meanings of tags are predefined.
B. In XML, a tag can be given any name as long as the name obeys XML naming conventions and is
well-formed.
C. In XML, elements can be given any number of attributes as long as the attributes obey XML naming
conventions and are well-formed.
D. XML protocols are linguistic standards used to control views on a Web browser.
Answer: D

XML Master examen   I10-001   I10-001

NO.2 Select which DTD element type declaration correctly defines the "XML Documents" structure below.
[XML Documents]
<Documents>
<Product_Name>black pen</Product_Name>
+
<Product_Name> red pencil </Product_Name>
=
<Price>100</Price>
yen.
</Documents>
A. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
B. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price|#PCDATA)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
C. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name*|Price)>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
D. <!ELEMENT Documents (#PCDATA|Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
Answer: D

XML Master examen   certification I10-001   I10-001   certification I10-001

NO.3 Select which of the following is coded using XML syntax:
A. XHTML documents
B. SOAP headers
C. XSLT Stylesheets
D. DOM
Answer: ABC

XML Master   certification I10-001   I10-001   I10-001

NO.4 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Document". Select which of the following correctly describes the
results of applying "XSLT Stylesheet" to "XML Document". Assume that the input XML document and
transformation results ignore meaningless whitespace.
[XML Documents]
<product_list>
<LIST>Product_List</LIST>
<product name="pen">
<name lang="ja">Pen</name>
</product>
<product name="paper">
<name lang="ja">Paper</name>
</product>
</product_list>
[XSLT Stylesheet]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0">
<xsl:template match="/">
<LIST>
<xsl:for-each select="/product_list/product">
<xsl:value-of select="name"/>
</xsl:for-each>
</LIST>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
A. A file that does not contain any content will be output, because the XML document LIST element does
not contain a name attribute.
B. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>PenPaper</LIST>
C. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
</LIST>
D. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
PenPaper
</LIST>
Answer: B

XML Master   certification I10-001   I10-001   certification I10-001   I10-001

NO.5 Select which of the following correctly describes an element type declaration that includes either the
"home" element or the "mobile" element as a child element of the "telephone_number" element.
A. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home,mobile)>
B. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home?mobile)>
C. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home)>
<!ELEMENT telephone_number (mobile)>
D. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home|mobile)>
Answer: D

XML Master   I10-001   I10-001

NO.6 Select which statement is correct with regards to creating an XML document based on the DTD
element type declaration below.
[element type declaration]
<!ELEMENT computer (notebook|server)*>
<!ELEMENT notebook (mouse*)>
<!ELEMENT mouse (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT server (#PCDATA)>
A. Both the "notebook" element and the "server" element can be written as a child element of the
computer element.
B. As a child element of the "computer" element, the "server" element can be written before the
"notebook" element.
C. When writing the "notebook" element, "mouse" must be written as a child element.
D. Only one "mouse" element can be written as a child element of the "notebook" element.
Answer: AB

XML Master   I10-001   certification I10-001

NO.7 Select which of the following is an absolute requirement for a well-formed XML document.
A. an XML declaration
B. a Schema definition
C. a DOCTYPE declaration
D. an element
Answer: D

XML Master   I10-001 examen   I10-001   I10-001 examen   I10-001 examen

NO.8 Select which of the following correctly describes the XML namespace to which the -->(1) "product"
element in the "XML Document" below belongs.
[XML Documents]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<products xmlns:A="urn:sample:A"
xmlns:B="urn:sample:B">
<A:product>
<B:product>
<product/> -->(1)
</B:product>
</A:product>
</products>
A. urn:sample:A
B. urn:sample:B
C. urn:sample:A and urn:sample:B
D. None
Answer: D

XML Master examen   I10-001   I10-001 examen   I10-001   I10-001 examen   I10-001 examen

NO.9 Choose the statement about a problem with DTDs that is incorrect.
A. The way statements are made in a DTD differs from how the same statements are made in XML. As
a result, different algorithms must be made available for the XML processor to interpret XML documents,
which is inefficient.
B. Any single DTD can only be used to validate a single XML document.
C. In a DTD, it is not possible to specify any explicit numerical data type.
D. DTDs fail to comply with the rules of namespaces.
Answer: B

XML Master examen   I10-001   I10-001   I10-001 examen

NO.10 Select which of the following is the default character encoding for an XML document in which the XML
declaration does not designate an encoding attribute.
A. UNICODE
B. Shift_JIS
C. UTF-8 or UTF-16
D. EUC-JP
Answer: C

XML Master   I10-001 examen   I10-001 examen

NO.11 Select which of the following correctly describes the DTD attribute list declaration when the "date"
attribute and the "reception" attribute are included in the "Customer_Visit" element.
A. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date,reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
B. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date|reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
C. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date && reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
D. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date CDATA #IMPLIED reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
Answer: D

XML Master examen   I10-001   I10-001 examen   I10-001   I10-001

NO.12 Select which of the following correctly describes a document type declaration when designating an
external DTD file.
A. <!ENTITY productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
B. <!DOCTYPE productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
C. <!DOCTYPE root [
<!ELEMENT productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
]>
D. <!DTD productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
Answer: B

XML Master   I10-001   certification I10-001   I10-001   certification I10-001

NO.13 Select which of the following correctly describes a namespace to which the "price" element in the XML
document below belongs.
<message xmlns="urn:sample:order"
xmlns:product="urn:sample:product">
<product:list xmlns="urn:sample:list">
<name>XML study guide</name>
<price>536</price>
</product:list>
<order>
<customerID>J058974</customerID>
<number>1</number>
</order>
</message>
A. urn:sample:order
B. urn:sample:product
C. urn:sample:list
D. Does not belong to any namespace.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Select which of the following correctly describes an XML Schema definition when the MarketPrice
element must be a positive integer. Assume the Schema namespace prefix is "xs".
A. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:negativeInteger"/>
B. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:positiveInteger"/>
C. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:duration"/>
D. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:hexBinary"/>
Answer: B

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NO.15 Select which statement correctly describes the XML document below.
[XML Documents]
<!DOCTYPE ElementA [
<!ELEMENT ElementA EMPTY>
<!ATTLIST ElementA Attribute (ABC|DEF|GHI) #IMPLIED>
]>
<ElementA Attribute ="
A
B
C"/>
A. This is not a well-formed document, because the attribute value cannot have a line feed in it.
B. This is not a valid XML document, because an attribute cannot be designated for an element that is
designated as EMPTY.
C. This is not a valid XML document, because the attribute value is not a value listed in the attribute list
declaration.
D. This is a valid XML document.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Select which of the following correctly
describes a valid XML document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="ContactInformation" type="ContactType" />
<xs:complexType name="ContactType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element name="Name" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
<xs:element name="eMail" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
</xs:sequence>
<xs:attribute name="Date" type="xs:date" use="optional" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
A. <ContactInformation Date="2004-07-31">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
B. <ContactInformation>
<Name/>
<eMail/>
</ContactInformation>
C. <ContactInformation Date="July 31, 2004">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
D. <ContactInformation/>
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Select which answers are correct with respect to the relationship between "x", as expressed in the
DTD element type declaration below, and its child element. Assume child elements "a" "b" "c" are all
empty elements, expressed as like <a/>.
[DTD]
<!ELEMENT x (a, (b|c)*)>
A. <x>
<a/>
<b/>
<c/>
</x>
B. <x>
<a/>
</x>
C. <x>
<a/>
<c/>
<c/>
<b/>
</x>
D. <x>
<b/>
<c/>
<a/>
</x>
Answer: ABC

XML Master   I10-001 examen   I10-001 examen

NO.18 Select which of the following is correct with respect to the attribute list declaration for setting
"notebook" as the default value in the CDATA "type" attribute included in the "computer" element.
A. <!ATTLIST type CDATA "notebook">
B. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA notebook>
C. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA "notebook">
D. <!ATTLIST computer type="notebook" CDATA>
Answer: C

XML Master   I10-001 examen   I10-001

NO.19 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Which of the following is a valid XML
document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Output_file" type="outputType" />
<xs:complexType name="outputType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="20" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file" type="fileType" />
<xs:complexType name="fileType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file_Name" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file_Name" type="xs:string" />
</xs:schema>
A. < xml version="1.0"?>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
B. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
C. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
D. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
<file>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
Answer: ABD

XML Master   I10-001   certification I10-001

NO.20 Select which of the following correctly describes (1) and (2) in the XML Schema document below when
the content of the "Flag" element must be an integer of 0 or 1.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Flag" type="flagData"/>
<xs:simpleType name="flagData">
<xs:restriction base="xs:integer">
<(1) value="0"/>
<(2) value="1"/>
</xs:restriction>
</xs:simpleType>
</xs:schema>
A. (1) xs:minInclusive (2) xs:maxInclusive
B. (1) xs:enumeration (2) xs:enumeration
C. (1) xs:minOccurs (2) xs:maxOccurs
D. (1) xs:minExclusive (2) xs:maxExclusive
Answer: AB

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4)
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NO.1 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

VMware examen   VCP411 examen   VCP411   VCP411   VCP411 examen

NO.2 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.3 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

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NO.5 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

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NO.6 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.7 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.9 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

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NO.10 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

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NO.12 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

VMware examen   certification VCP411   VCP411   certification VCP411

NO.14 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

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NO.15 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

VMware   VCP411   VCP411   VCP411

NO.16 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.17 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

VMware   certification VCP411   VCP411

NO.18 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

VMware   VCP411 examen   VCP411

NO.19 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

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NO.1 次のタスクのどれが ESXi ホストのホーム· ページから選択することができますか（三つ
選んでください）??。
A. このホストの゗ンベントリのデータストゕを閲覧します。
B. vSphere 4 のドキュメントを表示します
C. VMware vCenter Server をダウンロードします
D. VMware Web Access Client をダウンロードします。
E. このホストの゗ンベントリ内の仮想マシンを閲覧します。
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 管理者は、サービスコンソールのメモリ要件を増加させる ESX 4.x ホスト上でサポート
される追加コンポーネントを゗ンストールする予定です。
この゗ンストールを実行することについて次のどれが本当ですか（二つ選んでください）。
A.ESX ホストのメモリには、 CLI を使用して調整する必要があり、再起動の必要がありません。
B.vmkcore パーテゖションは、追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
C. ホストのメモリは、vSphere Client または CLI を使用して調整する必要があるでしょう。そ
して、ESX ホストは再起動する必要があります。
D. スワップパーテゖションが追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 ゕドバンスラ゗センスで使用できるソケットあたりのコゕの最大数は何ですか。
A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.4 管理者は、 SAN から起動する 10 台の ESX 4.x ホストのために、 VMFS および vmkcore パ
ーテゖションを提供する単一の SAN ボリュームを設定しています。
vmkcore パーテゖションが 10 台のホストをサポートするために、このボリューム上に存在
する必要がある最小サ゗ズはどのくらいですか。
A. vmkcore パーテゖションは、ローカルストレージに格納する必要があります
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 500MB
Answer: B

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NO.5 vCenter Server 4.x を゗ンストールする場合、ラ゗センスはどこで維持されますか（二つ
選んでください）。
A. ESXi ホスト上
B. ラ゗センスサーバー内
C. vCenter Server データベースで
D. vCenter Server マシンのラ゗センスフゔ゗ル内
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 ESX 4.x の゗ンストールを実行するときは、サービス? コンソール? フゔ゗ル? システムの
有効な場所は次のどれですか（二つ選んでください）?? 。
A. 共有 VMFS データストゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
B. SAN デゖスク上の ESX ホストのみにマスクされた VMFS データストゕに配置された仮想デ
ゖスク内。
C. ローカルストレージにある ext3 フゔ゗ルシステム内。
D. ローカルストレージ上の VMFS データストゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 次の機能のうちどれが vSphere Advanced Edition の一部ではないのですか。
A. VMware High Availability
B. VMware Fault Tolerance
C. VMware DRS
D. VMware vShield Zones
Answer: C

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NO.8 ESXi 4.x のデフォルト? スワップパーテゖションのサ゗ズは、次のどれですか。
A. 544MB
B. 4GB
C. 600MB
D. 1.6GB
Answer: B

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NO.9 次のストレージ· リソースのどれが ESX 4.x の゗ンストール時のみに作成されています
か（二つ選んでください）。
A. vmkcore
B. swap
C. VMFS datastore
D. scratch
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 管理者は物理サーバーに ESX 4.x を゗ンストールしています。
正常な゗ンストールをサポートするために、次のコンポーネントのどれが変更されるまたは
交換される必要があるでしょうか。
A. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
B. SATA disk controller
C. 1GB RAM
D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
Answer: C

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