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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y18

Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 The ProCurve AP 420 radio has one Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID), and each of the two AP 530
radios has 16 BSSIDs.What is the implication of this difference?
A. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 16.
B. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 32.
C. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 16.
D. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 32.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When can a station no longer communicate with an AP?
A. when the received signal falls below 0 dBm
B. when the received signal falls below the background noise
C. when the received signal falls below the station's receiver sensitivity
D. when the received signal falls below the fade margin for the wireless cell
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on the ProCurve AP 530 prevent?
A. loops over connections to stations in the wireless network
B. loops over the APs Ethernet and wireless bridge connections
C. loops over connections between stations in the wireless and the wired network
D. loops over connections between only wireless stations associated with multiple APs
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a function of ProCurve Identity Driven Manager (IDM)?
A. It identifies which wireless users must associate to the wireless network.
B. It enables you to load different configuration files onto your ProCurve Mobility Infrastructure devices.
C. It guides you in creating policies that can be applied, through RADIUS, to either wired or wireless
users.
D. It adds special features to ProCurve Manager (PCM) for configuring radio and wireless security
settings.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does the slot time determine?
A. the number of seconds the AP waits between sending beacons
B. the length of time the station waits between detecting a transmission and sending a frame
C. the beginning of the 802. 11 frame, which enables the AP and the station to synchronize their
transmissions
D. how long the station can "sleep" before it must become active and check the AP to see if there are any
transmissions waiting for it
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want ProCurve Radio Port (RP) 1's radio to function as a neighbor for RP 2's radio.RP 1 will
monitor RP 2 and take action if RP 2 becomes unavailable.You configure RP 1's radio to take which
action if RP 2 becomes unavailable? (Select two. )
A. Open its data rates.
B. Change the radio's channel.
C. Increase the radio's transmit power.
D. Order stations associated with RP 2 to roam.
E. Change the radio mode from 802. 11a to 802. 11b/g.
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Your company has a branch office down the street from your main office.You want to connect the
networks between the two offices, and physical cabling is not an option.Which wireless devices should
you select for this environment?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. two RP 230s and a Wireless Edge Services xl Module
D. two RP 220s with Yagi antennas and a Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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NO.8 The ProCurve Mobility Manager (PMM) site-planning tool provides an Auto Placement tool.What does
this tool take into account as it places devices on the floor plan?
A. the existing RF interference
B. the obstacles that you have defined
C. other devices already placed on the floor plan
D. the floor plan dimensions and desired capacity
Answer: D

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NO.9 What purpose does the second software image on the ProCurve AP 420 serve?
A. It allows you to choose two different images to load onto the AP.
B. It allows you to keep the last software image that was loaded onto the AP.
C. It provides a failsafe image in the event the primary image becomes corrupted.
D. It provides an alternate software version in the event the primary does not support your configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which security option was part of the original 802. 11 standard?
A. 802. 1X
B. Shared-key WEP
C. Dynamic Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access with preshared keys (WPA-PSK)
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your company wants to use the 2. 4GHz frequency on both of your ProCurve AP 530 radios.What
must you do so that both radios can use this frequency?
A. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
B. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b, and install an external antenna for radio 2.
C. Install an 802. 11b/g card on radio 2, and set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
D. Set one radio to 802. 11g and one radio to 802. 11b, install an external antenna for radio 1, and
configure radio 1 to use an external antenna.
Answer: B 18. Which ProCurve AP 530 feature is most beneficial for a small to medium business that has
strong security needs?
A. It monitors for excessive probes to detect possible intrusion attempts.
B. Its internal RADIUS server provides standalone support for 802. 1X authentication.
C. Unlike the ProCurve AP 420, it can operate all 16 of its wireless LANs in closed system.
D. It supports 802. 11a, and hackers generally do not check for networks on this frequency.
Answer: B

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19. A network administrator accesses the Marketing WLAN, which is assigned to VLAN 32 on the
ProCurve AP 530.When the AP 530 submits the administrator's login credentials to the RADIUS server,
the RADIUS server returns a dynamic VLAN assignment of 10 to the AP 530.The AP 530 is using the
default settings for dynamic and static VLAN support. In which VLAN does the AP 530 place the network
administrator's traffic?
A. 32, because dynamic VLANs are disabled by default
B. the default management VLAN, because there is a VLAN conflict
C. 10, because dynamic VLAN assignments override static VLAN assignments
D. 32, because static VLAN assignments override dynamic VLAN assignments
Answer: C

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20. You are configuring a WLAN on the ProCurve AP 420.When students, faculty members, and
administrators associate to the WLAN, you want them to receive the dynamic VLAN assignment for their
particular group.However, when staff members associate to the WLAN you want their traffic to be placed
in the VLAN that is assigned to the WLAN. How do you configure the AP 420 to support these VLAN
assignments?
A. You select the Dynamic VLAN option for the WLAN.Static VLANs are supported by default.
B. You select both the Static and Dynamic VLAN options.These global options apply to the entire AP 420.
C. You select the Enable VLAN option for the WLAN.This option enables support for both static and
dynamic VLANs on this WLAN only.
D. You select the Dynamic VLAN option, which enables both static and dynamic VLANs.This global
option applies to the entire AP 420.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism do both the ProCurve AP 420 and the ProCurve AP 530
support?
A. Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM)
B. SpectraLink Voice Priority (SVP)
C. Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
D. Wi-Fi Multimedia Extensions (WME)
Answer: B

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NO.13 You need to provide a wireless network for a small area that will require two access points.For this
wireless network, you want to support both 802. 11b/g and 802. 11a radios throughout the entire
coverage area.What would you choose?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with two Radio Port (RP) 210s
D. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with one RP 230 and one RP 210
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the default management username and password on the ProCurve AP 530?
A. The username is admin, and the password is admin.
B. The username is admin, and the password is procurve.
C. The username is manager, and the password is procurve.
D. The username is admin, and there is no default password.
Answer: A

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NO.15 How many configuration files can be stored on the ProCurve AP 420?
A. 2: the startup-config and the factory default config
B. 3: the startup-config, the factory default config, and one custom config
C. 3: the factory default config, the startup-config, and the backup startup-config
D. 4: the factory default config, the startup-config, the backup startup-config, and one custom config
Answer: A

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NO.16 Wireless networks present certain challenges.Which wireless network challenge does ProCurve
Mobility Infrastructure Solutions help you address?
A. Users are less productive when using a wireless connection.
B. 802. 11 standards do not provide any guidelines for Layer 2 roaming.
C. 802. 11 standards do not provide any encryption, so you must create VPN tunnels to each end station.
D. Multiple users connect to the network through the same AP, but access must be authorized for each
user.
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are configuring a ProCurve AP 530.You configure two WLANs.What is one reason to enable the
first WLAN only on radio 1 and the second WLAN only on radio 2?
A. to overcome environmental obstacles
B. to double the capacity of each WLAN by using two radios
C. to separate different types of wireless traffic into different collision domains
D. to allow users to choose their radio but still connect to the same Basic Service Set (BSS)
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y16

Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

HP0-Y16 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP0-Y16.html

NO.1 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

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NO.3 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

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NO.5 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

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NO.8 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

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NO.11 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.14 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.15 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.16 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.17 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

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NO.19 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

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NO.21 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

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NO.22 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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NO.24 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.25 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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NO.26 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

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NO.27 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.30 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP2-027

Nom d'Examen: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)

Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

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NO.1 An engineering drawing firm is planning to upgrade their tape backup systems, but they
are constrained by their investment in older tapes. They need systems that will preserve
their old data by reading backward two generations.
Which tape technology provides read compatibility for two prior generations? Select
TWO.
A. SDLT
B. AIT
C. LTO
D. DLT
E. SLR
Answer: C, D

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NO.2 Which HP 9000 server supports a maximum of two hard partitions?
A. rp4440-4
B. rp4440-8
C. rp7420-6
D. rp8420-32
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which application functionality benefits most from a 64-bit architecture over a 32-bit
architecture?
A. Clustered DNS Server
B. Clustered Print Spooling
C. High Performance Computing
D. Clustered AutoStore Capturing
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is important to implement when providing a non-disruptive IP telephony solution
(VoIP)?
A. Fabric Shortest Path First (FSPF)
B. Packet caching (Pcache)
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. VLAN routing (vlanR)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which backup method provides the lowest TCO?
A. shared SCSI backup
B. local SCSI backup
C. data replication backup
D. automated centralized backup
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which advantage does fiber optic cable offer over copper cabling?
A. lower reliance on hubs and switches
B. longer distances
C. easier implementation
D. lower cost
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which web-based software solution enables a corporate customer to track PC (business
desktop, notebooks and workstations) assets, alerts, diagnostics and SoftPaq distribution
across an enterprise environment?
A. Altiris Deployment Server
B. HP OpenView Helpdesk software
C. HP Essentials software
D. HP Client Manager tool
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which legacy server platforms have high potential to migrate to the Intel Itanium server
platform? Select TWO.
A. HP 9000 servers
B. HP AlphaServers
C. HP ProLiant 300 family servers
D. HP ProLiant 900 family servers
Answer: A, B

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NO.9 What is the benefit of using server virtualization technology, such as VMware, in the x86
server environment?
A. to maximize the utilization of x86 server resources
B. to enable clustering without single-point-of-failure
C. to enable failover-failback between x86 processors
D. to maximize I/O performance by sharing with multiple servers
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which networking security option can be used to authenticate wireless LAN
(802.11b/g/a) access?
A. VLAN
B. DMZ
C. RADIUS
D. BOOTP
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P13

Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Design of HP Integrity Server Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Which applications will benefit most from porting from 32-bit to Itanium 64-bit processors? (Select two.)
A. web services
B. floating point calculations
C. very large databases
D. online transaction processing
E. mission-critical applications
Answer: BC

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NO.2 When you are designing an HP Integrity solution, which HP tool should you use to determine power
consumption?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. sizing tool
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
D. power calculator
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which functions are provided by Integrity Virtual Machines but not by hard partitions?
A. failover protection for high availability
B. ability to run multiple operating systems simultaneously
C. electrical isolation
D. dynamic resource allocation
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statements are true about memory in cell-based Integrity systems? (Select two.)
A. Memory modules of different sizes can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Cell local memory can be configured as a percentage of memory.
C. Cell local memory is faster than interleaved memory for providing access to memory on other cells in
the system.
D. Memory must be installed in dual quads of the same size memory modules.
E. Cell-based systems require cell local memory.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which statement is true regarding I/O technologies in HP Integrity servers?
A. PCIe uses a dual simplex point-to-point topology to move data.
B. PCI-X and PCIe support complex routing.
C. PCI, PCI-X, and PCIe use parallel buses.
D. PCI and PCIe are connector-compatible.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is currently using 32-bit processors in their data center. At present, they are not running out
of disk space for their applications, and they have not had to create partitions for their databases.
What advantage can this customer gain by switching to 64-bit computing? (Select two.)
A. greater security and availability
B. reduced diskspace costs
C. faster response times for queries
D. fewer processors required for tasks
E. potential reduction in licensing costs
Answer: DE

HP   HP0-P13   HP0-P13

NO.7 Your customer wants to permanently move processor usage rights within a server. Which type of
licensing is needed?
A. TiCAP
B. vPar
C. GiCAP
D. iCAP
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which feature of the HP sx2000 chipset makes the Integrity rx7640 server a better choice for high
availability than the rx6600?
A. double chip spare
B. Hyper-Threading
C. link self-healing
D. Dynamic Processor Resilience
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which high-availability feature keeps a system running in spite of a multi-bit DRAM error?
A. chip spare like memory
B. memory scrubbing
C. dynamic page deallocation
D. address control parity
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which feature of an HP Integrity cell-based server enables you to replace a failed processor on one
partition, while the other partition is running?
A. dynamic processor deallocation
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. electrically isolated partitions
D. hot plug processors
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J37

Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing XP24000, XP20000, XP12000, XP10000)

Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

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NO.1 When using HP StorageWorks XP Business Copy, what is the maximum number of secondary volumes
that can be paired to a primary volume?
A.3
B.8
C.9
D.12
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does an HP StorageWorks XP based solution provide that other HP storage offerings do not?
(Select two.)
A.simple management with enterprise class features
B.best Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
C.support for the largest number of operating systems
D.support of DAS-to-SAN migration
E.highest level of scalability
Answer: CE

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NO.3 On the XP24000 initial release, which volume types can be used by HP StorageWorks XP Snapshot?
(Select two.)
A.secondary volume
B.external volume
C.snap volume
D.external storage volume
E.primary volume
Answer: AE

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NO.4 You are using HP StorageWorks Business Copy XP to make a copy of a production volume for testing
purposes. Your HP-UX server has the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) feature installed. Which restriction
applies for the primary (P-VOL) and secondary (S-VOL) volumes?
A.When in the PAIR state, the host can write to the S-VOL.
B.When doing a reverse resync operation, the host can write to the P-VOL.
C.When the pairsplit operation is complete, the host can write to the S-VOL.
D.During a pair resync quick restore, the host can write to the P-VOL.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When creating a Business Copy pair on an XP20000, the operation reports an error. You check the
status of both the primary volume (P-VOL) and secondary volume (S-VOL). In which state do both the
P-VOL and the S-VOL need to be for this operation to be successful?
A.pair-ready
B.duplex
C.initialized
D.simplex
E.cleared
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a function of the XP Custom Volume feature?
A.splits the fixed-size volume to improve data access performance
B.splits a logical volume to improve data access performance
C.combines fixed-sized volumes to form a large volume to conserve space
D.combines array groups to form a large volume to conserve space
Answer: B

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NO.7 How many drive slots are reserved exclusively for spare disks in the XP24000 disk array?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the benefit of HP StorageWorks XP for Data Exchange software?
A.allows data to be shared among heterogeneous disk arrays
B.shares data between mainframe and open systems servers
C.provides tape drive emulation and automated migration to physical tape devices
D.migrates data across different RAID levels
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does HP StorageWorks XP Thin Provisioning provide?
A.automatic addition of disk capacity to a provisioning pool
B.utilization of capacity in existing volumes
C.enhanced performance from a global pool of LDEVs
D.global allocation of physical disks across all array groups
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement correctly describes HP StorageWorks External Storage XP?
A.The uptime of the total solution is increased by using any array as external storage.
B.Hosts connected to the XP can see the native type of external arrays.
C.Hosts and external storage can be connected to the XP through direct connect or a SAN.
D.Hosts and external storage can share port connections on the XP.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP2-B11

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Designjet Foundations Datasheet)

Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 .In some models when installing a roll Designjet function folding excess material in the paper roll is
performed in accordance with the sequence of treatment users. What gives?
A. A minimum of waste paper.
B. Paper does not get dirty.
C. Accuracy of using the tracking parameter length of the material.
D. Proper protivonatyazhenie material in the boot process to prevent warping of the paper.
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Which statement about the differences in the printer ICC profiles between the driver and the
RIP-processor is true?
A. For a given material and the print mode, there is always a unique profile ICC.
B. color management firmware runs your printer, and the same information is used for transformation.
C. ICC printer profiles in RIP-processor optimized for printing test prints, and profiles in the driver
optimized for photos.
D. printer ICC profiles in the RIP-processor is the profile of the color system CMYK, and driver profiles -
profiles with the color system RGB.
Answer: D

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NO.3 .What is the main characteristic of the format JPEG?
A. Format the image file with the tagged content.
B. Format of the image file, in which the indexed color palette.
C. image file format that uses compression technology with data loss.
D. Preservation of formatting for the file to be transferred between computer architectures.
Answer: C

HP examen   certification HP2-B11   certification HP2-B11   HP2-B11

NO.4 For some reason the ink soak into the paper, making the lines blurred and fuzzy? (Choose two
answers.)
A. The air inside the printhead
B. Wrong temperature
C. The paper does not cover the back side
D. Too high humidity
Answer: BD

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NO.5 When you want to fill the system Designjet printers asymmetric-type?
A. Filling not required.
B. After 10000 cycles, scanning along the axis.
C. Each time you change tubes for ink.
D. When you first start, and the replacement of tubes for ink.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statements about forming a halftone images when printing is correct? (Choose two answers.)
A. halftone is an image in the "Sepia".
B. halftone image is converted into a series of dots that simulate the original image.
C. Formation of the grayscale image - a process of varying the density and structure of black and white
dots to simulate shades of gray.
D. Formation of a grayscale image - a process of varying the density and structure of blue, purple and
yellow dots to limit the amount of ink required for your vehicle.
Answer: BC

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NO.7 What is the function of feeder ink?
A. Cleaning the printhead.
B. Assistance in cleaning up the feed and share clips.
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C. Mounting of cartridges and ink in the printhead.
D. Submission of ink in the tube during the closing and cleaning printheads.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What HP Designjet printers are ideal for professional graphics applications? (Choose two answers.)
A. The HP Designjet 1930 series
B. The HP Designjet 4500 series
C. The HP Designjet 5500 series
D. The printer HP Designjet 500/800 series
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Which statement best describes the products HP Designjet?
A. The line of products includes HP Designjet ink-jet printers HP large format.
B. The line of products includes HP Designjet HP Inkjet Printer small size.
C. A product line includes the HP Designjet Laser Printers HP large format.
D. Product line includes HP Designjet Laser Printers HP small format.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You're on your printer Designjet, printheads which have been configured. The printer re-installed and
ready for inclusion. What is the next step should be taken?
A. Before turning to manually fill the tube with ink.
B. Hold the top button, turn the power to automatically fill tubes with ink.
C. Set the configured printheads and follow the instructions on the front panel display.
D. Remove the printheads are configured, installed in the cartridge for transportation, establish a working
print heads, and include meals.
Answer: B

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NO.11 For some reason the line can be a bit uneven? (Choose two options.)
A. Damage printhead
B. Too heavy paper
C. The deformation of the paper itself
D. The use of paper, which was kept in extreme conditions
Answer: AD

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NO.12 What are the reasons for the need to pack for HP Designjet? (Choose two answers.)
A. Need to update a driver
B. The need to upgrade RAM
C. Need to update the firmware
D. The need for hardware upgrades
Answer: AC

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NO.13 .Which printer models, Designjet possible to update the firmware?
A. 1000 series and 500 series
B. 400 series and 1000 series
C. 400 series, 500 and 800 series
D. 4000 series and 100/120/130 series
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statement describes the process of custom color management based on profiles of ICC?
A. The user has no control over the process of displaying non-CMYK colors.
B. U user less able to manage the display of non-CMYK colors.
C. U user more control over the process of displaying non-CMYK colors.
D. Management of the display outside the CMYK color corresponds to the work without the use of profiles
ICC.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are the main characteristics of format TIFF?
A. File format images tagged content.
B. File format images, which are indexed color palette.
C. image file format that uses compression technology with data loss.
D. Preservation of formatting for the file to be transferred between computer architectures.
Answer: B

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NO.16 What HP Designjet printers are ideal for professional applications software? (Choose two answers.)
A. The HP Designjet 1930 series
B. The HP Designjet 1050 series
C. The HP Designjet 4500 series
D. The HP Designjet 5500 series
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Which printers are equipped with built-in web server? (Choose two answers.)
A. Designjet 70/90
B. Designjet 5500
C. Designjet 1000
D. Designjet 4000
E. Designjet 500/800
Answer: BD

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NO.18 .A team of mechanical engineering production company wants to buy Designjet. What is the purpose,
that client will use the HP Designjet? (Choose two answers.)
A. Drawings
B. Pre-press proofing
C. High quality pictures
D. Printing from CAD applications
Answer: AC

HP   HP2-B11   HP2-B11   HP2-B11

NO.19 .What is the purpose of refilling ink system ink DesignJet printer after installation asymmetric-type?
A. Ensuring the proper pressure inside the cartridge.
B. Complete removal of ink, which could remain inside the tubes.
C. Initialization of the cartridge and a smart card printhead (accumen).
D. Ensure complete removal of air from the pipe system and adequate pressure of ink.
Answer: A

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NO.20 .Which statement is true with respect to PCL?
A. Optimized for printers Designjet.
B. Requires more memory the printer than the memory card HP-GL.
C. It is used for printing high quality graphics in vector form.
D. It is used for printing high quality graphics in bitmap format.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP2-E31

Nom d'Examen: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 51 Q&As

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NO.1 Which type of costs can HP Insight Manager typically reduce by at least 29%?
A. procurement
B. administration
C. server
D. floor space
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statements are true when describing the HP Converged Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. Payback can be achieved in less than one year.
B. IT resources can be reduced by 50%.
C. IT services provisioning can be reduced from approximately one month to as little as two hours
D. Customers can achieve 95% equipment consolidation
E. Customers can achieve 95% cost savings.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What are the characteristics of an HP converged infrastructure?
A. Virtualized.Resilient. Orchestrated. Optimized, and Modular
B. Virtualized.Resilient. Orchestrated. Ongoing, and Modular
C. Virtualized.Robust. Orchestrated, Optimized, and Modular
D. Virtualized.Robust. Orchestrated, Optimized, and Managed
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the benefits of pooling and sharing resources in a Converged Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. IT can charge the business more accurately.
B. All users can access the same "Storage Area Network" (SAN) which reduces the time it takes to launch
new services.
C. IT can quickly reallocate resources to match the changing performance and capacity needs of different
applications.
D. IT can respond more quickly to business changes and requests for new services can be dealt with in
weeks not months
E. IT resources do not need to be involved in any aspect of service provisioning.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 What is HP CI-MM Express?
A. It provides an assessment of the customer's current "as is" IT environment before proposing a
converged infrastructure evolution path.
B. It is a service designed to evaluate capacity across the server and storage estate.
C. It is a service to help customers implement "cloud computing."
D. It is a converged infrastructure measurement methodology that enables customers to predict future
server capacity requirements.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Traditionally IT departments have spent which percentage of their budget on operations and which
percentage on innovation?
A. 60% operations and 40% innovation
B. 50% operations and 50% innovation
C. 70% operations and 30% innovation
D. 40% operations and 60% innovation
Answer: C

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NO.7 Why it is so important to ask"Probing" questions in a sales situation? (Select two.)
A. The help to assess if the customer has a genuine requirement and is likely to invest.
B. They help to uncover or create the customers business needs.
C. They help to determine the customer's view of the competition.
D. They help in understanding the customer's problems or challenges and the associated
implications.
E. They help toarrive at the most accurate pricing structure for the project.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 The opening stages of a customer meeting are critical to the overall success of the meeting. What
should you always agree on at the beginning of each customer sales meeting? (Select two.)
A. the duration and agenda
B. the next action and the owner
C. the customer's objectives for the meeting
D. date for next meeting
E. the project timescales and budget
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Why is it important to ask an Attitude question at the end of a sales meeting? (Select two.)
A. to establish the decision date, decision making criteria and basis of decision
B. to be polite
C. to establish the customer's real views about your proposals
D. to inquire as to how someone else in the organization might view the proposals
E. to eliminate the competition from the sales opportunity
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 At the end of a customer meeting it is important to establish the next actions and seek agreement from
the customer on their actions. Which type of question should you ask at the end of the meeting?
A. Confirmation
B. Commitment
C. New Information
D. Conclusive
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: Hp2-H05

Nom d'Examen: HP (Design & Implementation of HP Thin Client Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which operation system of HP thin clients fully implements the features of the HP Session
Allocation Manager (SAM) broker?
A. HP ThinConnect
B. MS Windows CE
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows Vista
Answer: C

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NO.2 Name the tool that:
-supports HP thin clients
-is included with every HP thin client
-does not require a license
-provides easy-to-use, scalable image deployment and recovery for SMB environments
A. HP ThinState
B. HP Image manager
C. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
D. HP Client Automation (HPCA)
Answer: A

HP   Hp2-H05   Hp2-H05

NO.3 Which remote protocol has a client implementation on all major operating systems?
A. HP RGS
B. Citrix ICA
C. MS RDP
D. X Display Manager Control Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the mail-in warranty turnaround time for HP thin clients sent to HP for repair?
A. 8 hours
B. 16 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
Answer: D

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NO.5 The HP Compaq Thin Client Boot Order Change Tool enables you to change the boot order of a
thin client remotely. What is the correct Linux command to set the boot order as USB/
Flash/Network?
A. ./hpbootorder -uhn
B. ./hpbootorder -oufn
C. hpbootorder.exe -uhn
D. hpbootorder.exe -oufn
Answer: A

HP   Hp2-H05   Hp2-H05

NO.6 Which HP thin client has stateless mode capability?
A. t5545 (HP ThinPro)
B. t5540 (MS Windows CE)
C. t5730 (MS Windows XPe)
D. t5145 (HP ThinConnect)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your customer requires the lowest-cost thin client solution with only basic connectivity,
integrated connection brokers, no browser or terminal emulation support, and the most
essential peripheral support.
Which thin client operating system should you recommend?
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows CE
Answer: B

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NO.8 You want to configure your HP thin clients to boot from the network/ATA Flash/USB. What is the
correct command to use?
A. bootorder.exe -wNH
B. bootorder.exe -wHU
C. bootorder.exe -oNHU
D. bootorder.exe -oUNH
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are the characteristic of a Knowledge Worker user group (Select two)
A. richer graphical applications
B. many simultaneous user logins
C. multiple display support requirements
D. multiple business or productivity applications open simultaneously
E. fewer application types
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which HP Remote Client Solution is best for a task-oriented user?
A. HP Blade Workstation
B. Server Based Computing
C. HP Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
D. Hp Blade PC
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which thin client operating systems should you recommend to a customer who requires
high software extensibility? (Select two)
A. HP ThinPro
B. MS Windows XPe
C. HP ThinConnect
D. HP ThinPro Plus
E. MS Windows CE
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which models belong to the Flexible product line in HP thin client portfolio (Select two)
A. 6720t
B. t5730
C. t5145
D. t5630
E. t5540
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which HP thin client operating system includes the features listed below?
Case Study Title (Case Study):
Basic connectivity: ICA/RDP/X-term
Software extensibility: Modest - some modules can be download from HP
Peripheral support: Wide
Local browser: Firefox
Terminal emulation: TeemTalk
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MX Windows CE
Answer: A

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NO.14 A medium-sized bank has upgraded to the most recent Citrix XenApp environment. The
have asked you to provide thin client access devices. In addition to standard ICA access,
they need support for their local printers and would like to use XenApp's Web Interface 5.0
feature.
Which HP thin client models should you suggest as the best cost-effective option for them?
(Select two)
A. 2533t
B. 6720t
C. t5145
D. t5540
E. t5630
Answer: D,E

HP   Hp2-H05   certification Hp2-H05

NO.15 What is the role of a connection broker?
A. provides encryption between client and resources
B. determines resource type allocation based on user identity
C. manages golden images and their distribution to compute resources
D. provides a connection between the server and the computer resources
Answer: D

HP   Hp2-H05   Hp2-H05

NO.16 Which protocols does HP support to access HP blade workstations remotely (Select two)
A. ICA
B. VNC
C. RDC
D. RGS
E. RDP
Answer: D,E

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NO.17 Which features are exclusively available with the Windows Xpe operating system and not with the
other operating systems supported on the HP thin clients? (Select two)
A. media player
B. Smart Card support
C. Enhanced Write Filter (EWF)
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection
E. locked-down configuration and accounts
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solutions are recognized by HP (Select two)
A. HP Blade PC
B. VmWare View
C. Citrix XenApp
D. HP Image Manager
E. Citrix XenDesktop
Answer: B,E

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NO.19 To which product line classification in HP thin client portfolio does the HP 2533t model
belong?
A. Mobile
B. Flexible
C. Essential
D. Mainstream
Answer: A

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NO.20 Your customer needs to connect to and communicate with applications on mainframes and
midrange systems running proprietary operating systems, UNIX, and Linux.
Which HP thin client operating systems provide this ability through their support of the
Neoware TeemTalk terminal emulation? (Select three)
A. HP-UX 11i
B. HP ThinPro
C. MS Windows Vista
D. HP ThinConnect
E. MS Windows CE
F. Windows XPe
Answer: B,E,F

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Code d'Examen: HP3-023

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Color Laserjet 2820-2840 Aio Datasheet)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 What should display on the control panel before entering the menu to print a secondary service report?
A. Enter
B. Print
C. Service reports
D. Ready
Answer: D

HP examen   HP3-023   HP3-023

NO.2 What page contains four columns of horizontal lines, with each column responding to one of the print
cartridge colors?
A. Supplies Status
B. engine test
C. half self-test
D. Demo
Answer: A

HP   HP3-023   HP3-023   HP3-023

NO.3 What program allows customers to annotate documents with text and graphics?
A. HP Director
B. HP Document Viewer
C. HP Image Zone
D. Readiris Pro
Answer: B

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NO.4 Why would a fax Receive-to-PC mode option be unavailable on an HP Color LaserJet 2840 AiO?
A. The product is installed as a network device.
B. The product was installed hardware first, instead of software first.
C. Newer HP all-in-one products do not have this option.
D. When installing the software, select the Custom Install option.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer moved an image file from the PC to the memory card. However, the customer cannot open
the file now located on the card. What is your first step in testing the card?
A. Verify that the memory card can be used to obtain the file.
B. Verify that the correct side of the card was inserted into the reader.
C. Reseat the memory card by removing and reinserting.
D. Verify that the card has enough memory for the file.
Answer: C

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