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Code d'Examen: 920-337
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 and BCM450 Rls.1.0 Sales)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer wants to purchase a BCM solution. Their requirements include: two Media Bay
Modules (MBMs) with the capability to add an expansion unit redundant power supplies RAID 1
mirrored hard disks Which configuration meets these requirements?
A.the BCM50e configuration
B.the BCM 200 Redundant Feature Option (RFO) configuration
C.the BCM 400 RFO configuration
D.the BCM 450 Rls. 1.0 Standard configuration
E.the BCM 400 Standard configuration
Correct:C

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

NO.2 A customer wants to purchase a BCM50 solution. They need to determine both the number and
type of Media Bay Modules (MBMs) to purchase that will support their extension requirements.
They require support for six analog trunks, 14 digital extensions, two fax machines, and two
single-line phones, and they may eventually add an analog device. Which two MBMs will meet
these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.one ASM 4 MBM
B.one ASM 8 MBM
C.one DSM 16 MBM
D.one 8x16 Combo MBM
Correct:B D

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

NO.3 The BCM450 Rls. 1.0 base unit supports 100 IP sets. How many IP sets does the BCM450
support with the Capacity Expansion Card installed?
A.100
B.200
C.300
D.450
Correct:C

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

NO.4 Which component or feature is unique to the BCM450 Rls. 1.0 platform?
A.base function tray
B.eight fax ports
C.music source
D.two LAN ports
Correct:B

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

NO.5 A customer has a BCM400 that is performing all IPSec processing using software. They are
concerned about overloading the BCM400 processor with IPSec traffic processing. What is the
maximum number of simultaneous tunnels?
A.12 tunnels
B.16 tunnels
C.24 tunnels
D.30 tunnels
Correct:B

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

NO.6 A new customer already has an ADSL modem supplied by the ISP. The customer requires:
remote access for management a firewall IP telephony VPN Branch Tunneling Which BCM50
model will best address the customer's requirements?
A.BCM50
B.BCM50a
C.BCM50e
D.BCM50i
Correct:C

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

NO.7 If a 3/5 channel split is configured, which statement about the DS30 resources is true?
A.DS30 2 cannot be used by any module.
B.DS30 7 can be used by any module.
C.DS30 6 and DS30 7 cannot be used by any module.
D.DS30 6 cannot be used by any modules that require two busses.
Correct:D

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

NO.8 A network administrator needs to calculate the maximum number of voicemail ports required on
their BCM 450 Rls 1.0 system. Which factor should be considered when making this determination?
A.The range is 0 to 48 ports with the Capacity Expansion Card installed.
B.The range is 0 to 32 ports without the Capacity Expansion Card installed.
C.Each voicemail port requires two media channel resources.
D.Each voicemail port requires two signaling channel resources.
Correct:B

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

NO.9 A customer's BCM450 Rls. 1.0 system will be configured with 85 IP telephones and voicemail.
This system will also use over 30 digital telephones. What is required to provide sufficient
resources for this customer?
A.a 2/6 split
B.an expansion chassis
C.additional processor expansion cards (PECs)
D.a capacity expansion card (CEC)
Correct:D

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

NO.10 A company plans to implement a BCM solution with BCM Voice Messaging (CallPilot) and
Contact Center enabled. They are in the process of setting up a contact center. Which two items
should be considered when configuring the contact center? (Choose two.)
A.the number of IP trunks available
B.the number of DSP resources available
C.the number of Virtual Device Interface (VDI) channels available
D.the number of voice ports available
Correct:B D

Nortel examen   920-337   920-337 examen

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Code d'Examen: 920-320
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Meridian 1 Database)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

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NO.1 Certkiller .com's disaster recovery plan calls for off-site backup of its Meridian1 system
database, in case a disaster destroys the on-site copies of the system's configuration. How
would you fulfill this request for a Meridian1 Option 61C or 81C?
A. Optivity Telephony Manager (OTM) is the only way to crate an off-site backup for the
Meridian 1 Option 61C or 81C.
B. An auxiliary Floppy Disk Drive (Fdd) would need to be equipped on the Meridian 1 Option
61C or 81C to create the off-site backup.
C. Ensure that they have an extra blank PC Card (PCMCIA) blank memory card and that they
are properly trained to perform an Equipment Data Dump (EDD) on the blank card for off-site
storage.
D. Ensure that they have 2 MB (1.544 MB formatted capacity) blank floppy disks and that they
are properly trained to perform an EDD on the blank floppy disk for off-site storage.
Answer: D

Nortel examen   920-320   920-320   certification 920-320   920-320

NO.2 Certkiller .com wants external calls at a particular station to forward to an administrative
assistant under busy or no answer conditions, but wants internal calls under busy or no
answer conditions to forward to voicemail. Which software feature should you use to meet
this request?
A. The Meridian Integrated Personal Call Director (MIPCD) application would be required to
route based on Caller ID
B. The feature Call Forward by Call Type (CFCT) routes calls receiving a no answer or busy to
separately defined dialing numbers (DNs) based on if the call is internal and external
C. The feature Call Forward by Call Type (CFCT) only routes calls receiving a no answer to
separately defined dialing numbers (DNs) based on if the call is internal and external, busy calls
always follow the hunt DN.
D. Call Forward by Call Type (CFCT) only routes call receiving a busy to separately defined
dialing numbers (DNs) based on if the call is internal and external, no answer calls always
follow the forward no answer (FNA) DN
Answer: B

certification Nortel   920-320   920-320   920-320

NO.3 On A Non Direct Inward Dial (DID) incoming trunk, which overlay (LD) should you use to
route calls to an Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) DN 6000?
A. LD 16 AUTO (Auto Terminate) YES ATDN (Auto terminate DN) to 6000
B. LD 16 AUTO (Auto Terminate) YES and LD 14 ATDN (Auto Terminate DN) to 6000
C. LD 16 AUTO (Auto Terminate) YES and 15 ATDN (Auto Terminate DN) to 6000
D. LD 16 IDC (Incoming Digit Conversion) 27 and LD 49 IDTG (Incoming Digit Termination
Group) to 6000
Answer: B

Nortel examen   certification 920-320   certification 920-320   920-320   920-320

NO.4 A telephone needs to be restricted from access to the Paging (PAG) route. If the PAG route
Trunk Access Restriction Group (TARG) equals 1, 3, 5, 6, 7, What should be the Trunk
Group Access Restriction (TGAR) of that telephone?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: D

Nortel   920-320   920-320 examen   920-320 examen   920-320   certification 920-320

NO.5 The Customer Data Block (LD 15) is used define customer related timers when customizing
a Meridian1 system to customer requirements. Which timer is NOT defined in the
Customer Data Block (LD 15)?
A. switchhook flash timing
B. dial tone and Interdigit timeout
C. busy tone / overflow tone timeout
D. off hook alarm security timeout timer
Answer: D

Nortel   920-320   920-320   certification 920-320

NO.6 Certkiller .com has reported that some local calls are NOT going through (the caller hears
no ringing, etc.). Which two tools can the technician use to determine which trunk is
responsible? (Choose two.)
A. Use LD 80, to trace the DN of the telephone with the problem call. While the problem is
occurring, the output will identify the TN of the trunk for further testing.
B. Use LD 36, to list threshold overflows for the local route. Look for trunks with excessive
short holds and conduct further testing on those trunks using the TRK command in Load 36.
C. Use LD 80, to initiate a Malicious Call Trace (MCT) on the DN reporting the problem for the
date and time indicated in the problem report. This will identify the TN of the trunk involved.
D. Use LD 40, Call Detail Recording Diagnostic, to trace call history for the DN of the user
reporting the problem. From the CDR records output, correlate the call record time with the time
of the users problem call. The matching CDR record will identify the TN of the trunk that should
be tested.
Answer: A B

Nortel   certification 920-320   920-320   certification 920-320

NO.7 The Human Resources department wants to have the HR help line?appear on everyone's
telephone (8 users) in the department. They want any available employee to answer "HR
help line" calls. In addition, they want to be able to receive as many simultaneous calls as
there are employees (8) in the department. What would you recommend to the customer?
A. An Automatic Call Distributor (ACD) queue must be setup in Load 32. The 8 employees are
then defined as agents of that ACD group.
B. A Uniform Call Distribution (UCD) list can be defined with the DN's of the 8 employees in
the Human Resources department.
C. A multiple Appearance, Single Call Arrangement DN (SCR or SCN) can be programmed as a
secondary DN on the 8 users digital or Internet Telephones. It allows as many calls to be in
progress as there are appearances of the DN.
D. A Multiple Appearance, Multiple Call Arrangement DN (MCR or MCN) can be programmed
as a secondary DN on the 8 users digital or Internet Telephones. It allows as many calls to be in
progress as there are appearances of the DN.
Answer: D

certification Nortel   certification 920-320   certification 920-320

NO.8 To ensure that customers are informed about Ethernet LAN ports, what information
should you provide the customer about Meridian1 system ELANs?
A. The Nortel Networks ELAN is used for system administration and must be directly connected
to a Customers LAN (CLAN).
B. The Nortel Networks ELAN is the Enhanced Local Area Network sued to perform system
backups across the network to a customer provided server.
C. The Nortel Networks ELAN is used for connection to other Nortel Networks applications and
must be protected from traffic on a Customers LAN (CLAN).
D. The Nortel Networks ELAN is always a closed private LAN, using a simple hub for
connecting the Meridian 1 system to Optivity Telephony Manager (OTM), CallPilot, or
Symposium.
Answer: C

Nortel examen   920-320 examen   certification 920-320

NO.9 Which procedure should you use to effectively implement Ethernet interface (ELAN) on a
Meridian1 system?
A. Use LD 17, Create host entries, Assign host to primary and/or Primary IP address(es), Set up
Ethernet subnet mask, Set up routing entry.
B. Use LD 117, Create host entries, Assign host to primary and / or secondary IP address(es), Set
up Ethernet subnet mask, Set up routing entry.
C. Enable the ELAN interface in LD 117, Use ipconfig to ensure that the IP address(es), subnet
mask and gateway have been auto-configured by the DHCP server.
D. Enable the ELAN interface in LD 17, Use ipconfig to ensure that the secondary IP address(es)
subnet mask and gateway have been auto-configured by the Dynamic Host, Configuration
Protocol (DHCP) server.
Answer: B

Nortel   920-320   920-320

NO.10 Certkiller .com wants to be reassured that their customer data is safe on their Option 11C,
or Option 11C mini. How is the customer database backed up on these systems?
A. Optivity Telephony Manager (OTM) is required to backup the Meridian 1 Option 11C or 11C
mini to Meridian 1 Option 11C Hard Disk Drive (HDD).
B. The system backup procedure automatically backs up the customer configuration over the
Ethernet link to a customer provided server at midnight (daily).
C. The Equipment Data Dump (EDD) backs up the latest configuration database, including
recent service changes, by copying from the system's main memory (RAM) to the primary flash
ROM, Backup Flash ROM, and PCMCIA card (if one is present).
D. The EDD procedure backs up the latest configuration database, including recent service
changes, by copying from the system's main memory (RAM) to the Hard Disk Drive, and the
Floppy Disk Drive (FDD), if equipped.
Answer: C

Nortel   920-320   920-320   920-320   920-320 examen

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Code d'Examen: 922-102
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Nortel Converged Office for CS 1000 Rls. 5.x Configuration)
Questions et réponses: 32 Q&As

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NO.1 While at a customer site installing a Nortel Converged Office solution, you test the Remote Call Control
and the Telephony Gateway feature with an IP telephone and Office Communicator 2007 client. You find
that the Remote Call Control and Telephony Gateway and Services feature is not working. After
troubleshooting you decide to review the basic requirements to deploy the solution. Which
Communication Server 1000 software package provides the Remote Call Control Telephony Gateway
and Services feature?
A.Package 77
B.Package 398
C.Package 406
D.Package 408
Answer:D

Nortel examen   922-102 examen   922-102 examen   922-102 examen   922-102 examen

NO.2 Click on the Task button. You have been asked to troubleshoot a Nortel Converged Office solution for a
Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 network. The customer requirements include a centralized
numbering plan arrangement using SIP Trunking. Click on the component in the diagram that is required
as part of the centralized numbering plan for the network.
Answer:

NO.3 You are dispatched to a customer site to assist with troubleshooting a Remote Call Control problem on a
Nortel Converged Office solution. You decide to turn on traces on the Communication Server (CS) 1000E
side of the solution. Which component on the CS 1000E performs the SIP CTI TR/87 functionality?
A.Network Routing Service
B.Signaling Server
C.Application Proxy server
D.Network Connect Service
Answer:B

Nortel   922-102   922-102   922-102

NO.4 The Multimedia Communications Manager (MCM) Rls. 3.0 user account, on the Windows 2003 R2
server, requires privileges to perform administrative tasks on the local machine. Which local groups does
the user account need to be in to properly manage the MCM Rls. 3.0 application? (Choose two.)
A.local groups: Administrators Group
B.local groups: RTC Local Group
C.local groups: RTC Server Applications
D.local groups: RTC Server Local Groups
Answer:C D

Nortel   922-102 examen   certification 922-102   922-102

NO.5 During the installation of a new Nortel Converged Office solution you decide to perform packet captures
while making some test calls. After some analysis of the packet capture, you notice that the dual-forking
functionality is not working. Which is the correct Class of Service setting to enable twinning on a PCA
Terminal Number (TN) in a Nortel Converged Office solution with OCS 2007?
A.PCAG
B.PGNA
C.PRMA
D.PCAM
Answer:D

Nortel   922-102 examen   certification 922-102   922-102 examen

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Code d'Examen: NS0-530
Nom d'Examen: Network Appliance (NCIE - DataFort Security Exam)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 During installation of the LKM server software, which configuration options can be specified?
A. database type and schema
B. target directory and license
C. server port number and "using SSL"
D. LKM server IP and hostname
Answer: B

certification Network Appliance   NS0-530   NS0-530 examen   NS0-530   NS0-530

NO.2 What is the purpose of the Key Policy setting for tapes?
A. It determines whether or not each tape has a unique key.
B. It determines whether or not tape encryption keys can be shared by DataFort appliances.
C. It determines whether or not tape encryption keys are written to tape.
D. It determines how frequently tape keys are backed up.
Answer:A

Network Appliance   NS0-530   NS0-530   NS0-530   NS0-530 examen

NO.3 Which two statements about disk and tape I/O are true? (Choose two.)
A. Disk and tape I/O can be combined through the same standalone DataFort.
B. Disk and tape I/O can be combined through the same cluster but not through the same DataFort.
C. Disk and tape I/O cannot be combined through the same standalone DataFort.
D. Disk and tape I/O cannot be combined through the same cluster.
Answer: CD

Network Appliance   NS0-530 examen   certification NS0-530

NO.4 Which two can authorize Key Translation? (Choose two.)
A. the source DataFort administrator
B. the destination DataFort administrator
C. the LKM administrator
D. a quorum of Recovery Cards and passwords
E. a Recovery Key Archive file
Answer: DE

Network Appliance examen   NS0-530 examen   NS0-530

NO.5 In SAN 2.x, how many targets can be virtualized on an FC520?
A. 1
B. 7
C. 8
D. 31
Answer: B

Network Appliance examen   NS0-530   NS0-530 examen   NS0-530 examen

NO.6 Which two statements are true if a System Card is removed in a functional, fully initialized DataFort?
(Choose two.)
A. Encryption services are disabled after a reboot.
B. Encryption services halt within five minutes of card removal.
C. Recovery Card replacement does not work.
D. DataFort sends SNMP trap and initiates shutdown to protect access to encrypted data.
Answer:AC

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NO.7 What can the E-Series DataFort net util tcpdump command capture?
A. network packets going between two arbitrary machines
B. only network packets going between DataFort client-side NIC and arbitrary machines
C. only network packets going between DataFort server-side NIC and arbitrary machines
D. only network packets going between DataFort client-side NIC and server-side NIC
E. network packets going between DataFort client-side/server-side NIC and arbitrary machines
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about signed DataFort log messages? (Choose two.)
A. They contain a verifiable digital signature.
B. They can only be authenticated on the DataFort that generated the log message.
C. They may not be sent to a syslog server.
D. They may not be sent to a Windows event log.
Answer:AB

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NO.9 What are three valid forced media type and duplex mode settings on the DataFort? (Choose three.)
A. 1000baseTX, full-duplex
B. 1000baseTX, half-duplex
C. 100baseTX, full-duplex
D. 100baseTX, half-duplex
E. 10baseTX, half-duplex
Answer: ACD

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NO.10 Which three factors should be considered when assessing the performance impact a DataFort will
have on an existing environment? (Choose three.)
A. the number of devices connected to a specific DataFort
B. the type of Cryptainer vault created (LUN Mapped versus Port Mapped)
C. the combined speed of all devices connected to the DataFort
D. the device type, tape or disk, being connected to the DataFort
Answer: ACD

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NO.11 If you have an 8-node cluster, how many members must be online in the cluster in order to create
Cryptainer vaults?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.12 If a DataFort 2.x or later appliance fails, which three information sources can be used with the DataFort
Wizard to recreate the configuration information on a replacement? (Choose three.)
A. *.xdf file from LKM software/appliance
B. mysqldump of DataFort configDB
C. *.xdf file from manual backup
D. *.lkm file from LKM software/appliance
E. surviving cluster member
Answer:ACE

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NO.13 Which is a correct System Card replacement procedure for SAN 2.x?
A. zeroize DataFort and restore with an initialized System Card and a recent configdb using a quorum of
Recovery Cards
B. zeroize DataFort and join an existing cluster with an uninitialized System Card and a quorum of
Recovery Cards
C. insert an uninitialized System Card into the DataFort and perform a System Card replacement using a
quorum of Recovery Cards
D. insert an initialized System Card from an existing cluster member and perform a System Card
replacement using a quorum of Recovery Cards
Answer: B

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NO.14 In 2.x firmware, how many virtual storage devices (targets) and virtual client hosts (initiators) can be
attached to a single FC525 model DataFort?
A. 1 virtual storage device and 8 virtual client hosts
B. 7 virtual storage device and 7 virtual client hosts
C. 8 virtual storage device and 8 virtual client hosts
D. 8 virtual storage device and 32 virtual client hosts
E. 16 virtual storage device and 128 virtual client hosts
Answer: B

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NO.15 When are Recovery Cards required in the trustee key-sharing process?
A. during the establishment of only the trustee relationship
B. during the establishment of the trustee relationship and the key export
C. during the establishment of the trustee relationship, key export, and key import
D. Recovery Cards are not required in the trustee key-sharing process.
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which two key policies allow for all keys to be pre-generated and replicated to the DR site? (Choose
two.)
A. key per tape
B. key per pool
C. Global Pool with single key
D. periodic disk rekey
Answer: BC

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NO.17 California SB1386 requires businesses and government agencies to _____.
A. encrypt personal information on onsite backup tapes when reasonable alternative methods are not in
place
B. encrypt all personal information on offsite backup tapes when reasonable alternative methods are not
in place
C. encrypt all personal information on both disk and backup tapes, onsite or offsite, when reasonable
alternative methods are not in place
D. notify individuals if their unencrypted personal information is believed to have been disclosed to an
unauthorized person
E. notify the California District Attorney Office if unencrypted personal information is believed to have
been disclosed to an unauthorized person
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which procedure is used to move keys between LKM servers or appliances that do not share network
connectivity?
A. clustering
B. key export and import
C. Key Translation
D. tape metadata
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which property must be set to prevent overlapped SCSI commands?
A. dfc.serialize_storage_cmds
B. dfc.disable_overlapped_cmds
C. dfc.disable_host_LIP
D. dfc.isp.enableTaskMgmtPassUp
Answer:A

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NO.20 How many additional FC-switch ports are required for an inline direct-attached FC-5XX DataFort?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 10
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: NS0-510
Nom d'Examen: Network Appliance (NCIE - Backup and Recovery Implementation Engineer Exam)
Questions et réponses: 216 Q&As

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NO.1 When a SnapVault Secondary requests an incremental backup from the primary, the SnapVault
Primary creates a new snapshot and compares it to the most recent ONTAP-scheduled snapshot
in order to identify the changed data blocks.
A.True
B.False
Correct:B

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NO.2 The SnapVault Secondary is configured for user access of qtrees via NAS. How do you restore a
file?
A.by using SnapRestore
B.by using the SnapVault GUI
C.by users with sufficient privileges
D.by only storage administrators with sufficient privileges
Correct:C

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NO.3 Which two events occur when a volume with qtrees is backed up using SnapVault from Primary
to Secondary? (Choose two.)
A.Qtrees in Primary are stored as qtrees on Secondary.
B.Qtrees in Primary are stored as directories on Secondary.
C.Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a qtree.
D.Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a volume.
Correct:B C

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NO.4 From which three platforms does Open Systems SnapVault support backup and restore?
(Choose three.)
A.IBM AIX
B.SunOS
C.HP HP-UX
D.Linux
E.Windows NT, Windows 2000, and Windows Server 2003
F.SGI IRIX
Correct:A C D

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NO.5 SnapVault supports a multi-vendor storage infrastructure environment.
A.True
B.False
Correct:B

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NO.6 In which two situations is Snapshot the preferred strategy for backup and recovery? (Choose
two.)
A.when file systems or raw partitions consist of a single LUN
B.when file systems span multiple LUNs via Volume Manager Enterprise or a similar product
C.when selective restoration of files within the LUN is a requirement
D.when offloading the majority of backup overhead from the host system is a requirement
Correct:A D

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NO.7 Which two NetApp products support heterogeneous storage environments? (Choose two.)
A.NearStore VTL
B.SnapVault
C.OSSV
D.StoreVault
Correct:A C

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NO.8 Without the nearstore_option license installed, what are the total concurrent SnapVault
transfer streams for the FAS3020/3050?
A.16 for FC drives and 8 for SATA drives
B.8 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drives
C.32 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drives
D.16 for FC drives and 32 for SATA drives
Correct:A

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NO.9 Which NetApp backup and recovery solution is best for backing up remote office heterogeneous
data storage?
A.Snapshot copies
B.SnapManager
C.SnapVault
D.Open System SnapVault
Correct:D

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NO.10 Which two technologies serve as the basis for SnapVault-based backups? (Choose two.)
A.QSM
B.VSM
C.SyncMirror
D.Snapshot
Correct:A D

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NO.11 What are two applications that can manage Open Systems SnapVault-based backup
environments via NDMP? (Choose two.)
A.NetApp Protection Manager
B.Legato Networker
C.Symantec NetBackup
D.Syncsort Backup Express
Correct:A D

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NO.12 What are three NetApp backup and recovery solutions based on Snapshot technology?
(Choose three.)
A.SnapVault
B.OSSV
C.VTL
D.SnapManager products
Correct:A B D

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NO.13 What are three components of an Open Systems SnapVault (OSSV) installation? (Choose three.)
A.Primary System
B.Secondary System
C.OSSV agent installed on the primary system
D.OSSV agent installed on the secondary system
E.NetApp primary system
Correct:A B C

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NO.14 A-SIS optimization can be configured at _____.
A.the volume level only
B.the aggregate level only
C.both the aggregate and volume levels
D.the qtree level
Correct:A

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NO.15 SnapVault is a disk-based backup solution that _____. (Choose three.)
A.enables backup of heterogeneous primary storage systems to a NetApp secondary storage system
B.enables restoration of data from a SnapVault secondary storage system, with minimum downtime and
better reliability than tape-based backup and restore
C.requires both NetApp primary and secondary storage systems
D.enables data stored on multiple NetApp storage systems to be backed up to a central secondary
system as read-only Snapshot copies
Correct:B C D

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NO.16 What is the maximum number of concurrent A-SIS sessions on a NetApp controller?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Correct:C

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NO.17 SnapVault allows data to be _____.
A.centralized for enterprise-wide data management and allows backup applications to control native
backup and recovery facilities in NetApp storage systems
B.recovered from a corrupted database, application, or damaged file system in less than a minute,
regardless of the size of the volume being restored
C.backed up via Snapshot and transferred on a scheduled basis to a destination NearStore appliance
D.virtualized and tightly integrated with Microsoft NTFS, providing a layer of abstraction between
application data and its physical storage
Correct:C

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NO.18 What is RTO?
A.the amount of time that an organization will NOT have access to lost data while the data is being
recovered
B.the amount of time that an organization will take to recover their data
C.the time-out period for remote device access
D.the recorded time of the data outage
Correct:A

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NO.19 The NearStore VTL provides a masking function to control Host access to virtual devices.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

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NO.20 Tape backups are widely used because they are considered the most secure form of media
backup.
A.True
B.False
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: 70-290
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Managing and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Environment)
Questions et réponses: 268 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You use Windows Backup to back up Server1.
You need to view all the backup jobs that are scheduled to run on Server1. What should you do?
A. From Administrative Tools, run Services.
B. From Administrative Tools, run File Server Manager.
C. From Windows System Tools, run Scheduled Tasks.
D. From Windows System Tools, run System Information.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). You perform
a normal backup of Server1 every Saturday. You need to implement a backup strategy for Server1 to
meet the following requirements:
Minimize the time required to restore files.
On weekdays, back up only files that have changed since the Saturday backup. Which type of backup
should you perform on weekdays?
A. copy
B. daily
C. differential
D. incremental
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory
domain. All network servers run Windows Server 2003, and all are members of the domain. All client
computers run Windows XP Professional. Five Web servers host the content for the internal network.
Each one runs IIS and has Remote Desktop connections enabled. Web developers are frequently
required to update content on the Web servers.
You need to ensure that the Web developers can use Remote Desktop Connection to transfer Web
documents from their client computers to the five Web servers.
What should you do?
A. Install the Terminal Server option on all five Web servers. Use Terminal Services Configuration
Manager to modify the session directory setting.
B. Install the Terminal Server option on all five Web servers. Use Terminal Services Configuration
Manager to create a new Microsoft RDP 5.2 connection.
C. On each Web developer's client computer, select the Disk Drives check box in the properties of
Remote Desktop Connection.
D. On each Web developer's client computer, select the Allow users to connect remotely to this computer
check box in the System Properties dialog box.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory
domain. All network servers run Windows Server 2003. You install the Remote Administration tools on a
server named Server1, selecting all default settings.
In Internet Explorer, you type https://server1/admin. You receive the following error message:
"HTTP Error 404 File or directory not found."
You open IIS Manager and see the configuration shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that you can use Internet Explorer to administer Server1. What should you do?
A. In Internet Explorer, type http://server1:8099.
B. In Internet Explorer, type http://server1.
C. Install the Remote Desktop Web Connection subcomponent of the World Wide Web services.
D. In Internet Explorer, type https://server1:8098.
E. In Internet Explorer, type https://server1.
Answer: E

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NO.5 You have a server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The server has a backup
tape drive installed.
You need to schedule a backup to tape. The tape must be ejected when the backup job is complete.
Which commands should you include in the scheduled task?
A. Devcon.exe and Poolmon.exe
B. Ntbackup.exe and Devcon.exe
C. Ntbackup.exe and Rsm.exe
D. Rsm.exe and Poolmon.exe
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are the network administrator for your company. The network originally consists of a single
Windows NT 4.0 domain.
You upgrade the domain to a single Active Directory domain. All network servers now run Windows
Server 2003, and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. Your staff provides technical support
to the network. They frequently establish Remote Desktop connections with a domain controller named
DC1. You hire 25 new support specialists for your staff. You use Csvde.exe to create Active Directory user
accounts for all 25.
A new support specialist named Paul reports that he cannot establish a Remote Desktop connection with
DC1. He receives the message shown in the Logon Message exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You open Gpedit.msc on DC1. You see the display shown in the Security Policy exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
You need to ensure that Paul can establish Remote Desktop connections with DC1. What should you do?
A. Direct Paul to establish a VPN connection with DC1 before he starts Remote Desktop Connection.
B. Direct Paul to set a password for his user account before he starts Remote Desktop Connection.
C. In the local security policy of DC1, disable the Require strong (Windows 2000 or later) session key
setting.
D. In the local security policy of DC1, enable the Disable machine account password changes setting.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have a server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The server is configured as
shown in the following table.
You need to create a software mirror of Disk1. What should you do first?
A. Convert Disk3 to a dynamic disk.
B. Create a new NTFS volume on Disk3.
C. Run the Extend Volume Wizard on Disk1.
D. Convert Disk3 to a GUID Partition Table (GPT) disk.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are a network administrator for your company. All servers run Windows Server 2003. You manage a
server that functions as a file server. The data volume on the server is mirrored. Each physical disk is on a
separate controller. One of the hard disks that contains the data volume fails. You discover that the failure
was caused by a faulty SCSI controller. You replace the SCSI controller.
You need to restore the data volume to its previous state. You need to achieve this goal by using the
minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the diskpart active command to activate the failed volume.
B. Convert both disks to basic disks, and then restore the data.
C. Break the mirror, and then re create the mirror.
D. Select a disk in the mirror, and then reactivate the volume.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). You need
to use Windows Backup to meet the following requirements:
Minimize the number of scheduled backup jobs.
Perform a scheduled normal backup to disk every Friday. Perform a scheduled normal backup to tape
every Friday.
Perform scheduled differential backups to tape every Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday. How
many scheduled jobs should you create from Windows Backup?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. six
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have a server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). You need to ensure that a
defragmentation of the server's hard disk drive runs each night.
What should you do?
A. Create a scheduled task that runs Dfrg.msc.
B. Create a scheduled task that runs Defrag.exe.
C. From Computer Management, run Disk Management.
D. From Computer Management, run Disk Defragmenter.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). You need
to implement a backup schedule on Server1 to meet the following requirements:
Everyday, back up all files and folders to disk.
Every Friday, back up all files and folders to tape. Every Sunday, Tuesday, and Thursday, back up only the
files and folders that have changed since the previous Friday's backup to tape.
Which backup jobs should you create?
A. a normal backup to disk everyday
a normal backup to tape on Friday
a differential backup to tape on Sunday, Tuesday, and Thursday
B. a normal backup to disk everyday a normal backup to tape on Friday an incremental backup to tape on
Sunday, Tuesday, and Thursday
C. a copy backup to disk everyday
a normal backup to tape on Friday
a differential backup to tape on Sunday, Tuesday and, Thursday
D. a copy backup to disk everyday a normal backup to tape on Friday an incremental backup to tape on
Sunday, Tuesday and, Thursday
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are the network administrator for your company. All network servers run Windows Server 2003.
One of your servers contains a RAID 5 volume. Routine monitoring reveals a failed disk in the set. The
server is running and users are connecting to shared folders on the RAID 5 volume. You shut down the
server and replace the failed disk. Now you need to ensure that the RAID 5 volume is redundant. What
should you do?
A. Initialize the new disk. Select the failed region and then select the Repair Volume option.
B. Import the foreign disk. Select the failed region and then select the Repair Volume option.
C. Initialize the new disk. Select the failed region and then select the Reactivate Disk option.
D. Import the foreign disk. Select the failed region and then select the Reactivate Disk option.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). You perform
a normal backup of Server1 every Saturday. You need to implement a backup strategy for Server1 to
meet the following requirements:
Minimize the time required to back up files.
On weekdays, back up files that have changed since the last backup. Which type of backup should you
perform on weekdays?
A. copy
B. daily
C. differential
D. incremental
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are the network administrator for your company. All network servers run Windows Server 2003.
A member server named Server1 is configured to run shadow copies without a storage limit. Server1 has
the disk configuration shown in the following table.
You need to create additional free space on DATA1. You also need to improve the performance of
Server1and ensure that it has sufficient space for shadow copies in the future. Which two actions should
you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. Delete the shadow copies on DATA1.
B. Delete Backup.bkf on DATA3.
C. In the properties of DATA1, relocate the shadow copies to DATA2.
D. In the properties of DATA1, relocate the shadow copies to DATA3.
E. Delete DATA3 and extend the DATA1 partition to include the space on DATA3.
Answer: AD

Microsoft examen   70-290   70-290

NO.15 You are the domain administrator for your company's Active Directory domain. All client computers run
Windows 2000 Professional.
You recently deployed 10 new servers that run Windows Server 2003. You placed the servers in a new
organizational unit (OU) named W2K3Servers.
Anne is another network administrator.
You need to configure the appropriate permissions to allow Anne to manage the new servers by using
Terminal Services from her client computer. You need to assign Anne only the permissions she needs to
perform her job.
What should you do?
A. Add Anne's user account to the local Power Users group on each server that runs Windows Server
2003.
B. Add Anne's user account to the Remote Desktop Users group on each server that runs Windows
Server 2003.
C. Assign Anne's user account the Allow Read and the Allow Write permissions for the W2K3Servers OU.
D. Configure the Managed By property for the W2K3Servers OU to Anne's user account.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory
domain. All network servers run Windows Server 2003, and all client computers run Windows XP
Professional.
A user named Peter uses a client computer named Client1. This computer has a locally attached tape
device.
You grant Peter the necessary permissions to perform backups of a member server named Server1.
Peter runs the Backup utility on Client1 to back up the files located on Server1. You need use your client
computer to view the most recent backup logs for Server1. What should you do?
A. Use Notepad to view the contents of the backup report located on Server1.
B. Use Notepad to view the contents of the backup report located on Client1.
C. Use Event Viewer to view the contents of the application log located on Server1.
D. Use Event Viewer to view the contents of the application log located on Client1.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your organization includes two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2003
Service Pack 2 (SP2).
Server1 and Server2 host the same Web sites.
You need to back up the server configuration on Server1 every hour and then apply the configuration to
Server2.
Which command should you use?
A. IISBack.vbs /backup
B. IISBack.vbs /list
C. IISCnfg.vbs /copy
D. IISCnfg.vbs /save
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are the network administrator for your company. All network servers run Windows Server 2003.
The network includes a file server named File1. File1 contains a single disk for system files and two SCSI
hard disks that comprise a 72 GB mirrored volume with 65 GB of read only data. Users connect to this
data by using shortcuts on their desktops. File1 is scheduled for replacement. You have a scheduled
maintenance window to complete
this task. Before the maintenance window, you build a new server. You need to bring the new server
online with current data and re establish redundancy as quickly as possible. You must also ensure that the
desktop shortcuts will continue to function.
What should you do?
A. name the new server File2. Create a new mirrored volume by using two 72 GB disks.
Connect File2 to the network and copy the data from File1. When copying is complete, shut down the old
File1.
B. name the new server File1. Move both disks from the old File1 to the new File1. Scan the disks for
changes. Import the disks. Connect the new File1 to the network.
C. name the new server File1. Break the mirror on the old File1. Move one of the disks from the old File1
to the new File1. Scan the disk for changes. Initialize the disk. Select the spare disk and create the mirror.
Connect the new File1 to the network.
D. name the new server File1. Remove one of the disks in the mirror from the old File1. Move the disk to
the new File1. Scan the disk for changes. Import the disk. Shut down the old File1 and connect the new
File1 to the network.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are a network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory
domain.
A user named Mary works in the information technology (IT) security department. Mary is a member of the
IT Security global group. Mary reports that no one in the ITSecurity global group can access the security
log from the console of a computer named Server1. You need to grant the ITSecurity global group the
minimum rights necessary to view the security log on Server1.
How should you modify the local security policy?
A. Assign the Generate security audits user right to the ITSecurity global group.
B. Assign the Manage auditing and security logs user right to the ITSecurity global group.
C. Assign the Allow logon through Terminal Services user right to the ITSecurity global group.
D. Assign the Act as part of the operating system user right to the ITSecurity global group.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are the network administrator for your company. Your network consists of a single Active Directory
domain. All network servers run Windows Server 2003. You successfully install a new server named
Server9. Immediately afterward, you perform the first backup of the server. The date is January 25, 2003.
Next, you add a user named Anne to the local Backup Operators group. You direct Anne to perform
nightly backups of Server9.
One week later, you try to review the backup logs for Server9. The Backup utility displays the information
shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You verify that Anne is performing nightly backups. You need to be able to review the backup logs for the
previous week. What should you do?
A. Add your user account to the local Backup Operators group.
B. Direct Anne to use her user account to log on and open the Backup utility.
C. In the Backup utility, select the Verify data after the backup completes check box.
D. Open %windir%\system32\LogFiles. Create a new subfolder named BackupLogs.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2180-271
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1, Deployment )
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

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NO.1 A deployment professional has just completed a custom installation and needs to
examine the
installation details. What should the deployment professional use.?
A. Default application
B. First Steps Console
C. Installation Verification Tool
D. Integrated Solutions Console
Answer: C

IBM   C2180-271   C2180-271   C2180-271

NO.2 A deployment professional has been tasked with performing a typical IBM Business
Process Manager
Advanced installation with all of the latest fixes for a proof of concept. The installation is to be
performed
on a 64-bit Linux system using the Oracle database. The environment used for the
installation is on an
isolated network with no internet connectivity. What task should the deployment professional
perform to
ensure a successful installation?
A. Pre-create the needed database.
B. Ensure the 32-bit version of the product is used.
C. Prepare multiple machines for the clustered environment.
D. Verify the Installation Manager search service repositories option during install and update
is selected.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A deployment professional has to apply interim fixes to IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced
V7.5.1. The server where the fixes must be applied does not have an internet connection. All
the fixes
were downloaded to a local directory. What is the next step the deployment professional
must do to apply
the fixes?
A. Modify the repository.config file to point to each fix.
B. Apply each fix detected in the directory using the "Install" wizard.
C. Copy the fixes to a maintenance directory and point to this directory.
D. Use the Installation Manager to add a repository for each fix to be applied.
Answer: D

IBM   C2180-271   C2180-271   C2180-271   C2180-271

NO.4 A deployment professional has successfully completed an installation of IBM Business
Process
Manager Advanced V7.5.1 and has verified that the Process Center has started and is ready
for use by a
development team. Several developers now need to begin development of a process flow
using the IBM
Process Designer tool, and have provided the deployment professional with access to their
development
machines. How should the deployment professional proceed to begin installation of the IBM
Process
Designer tool for the developers?
A. Use IBM Installation Manager to install the IBM Process Designer.
B. Download the IBM Process Designer from the IBM Support website.
C. Install IBM Integration Designer which includes the IBM Process Designer.
D. Connect to the Process Center in a browser, and click the IBM Process Designer
Download option.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A deployment professional needs to install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced
V7.5.1 on an
existing installation of WebSphere Application Server. How should the deployment
professional do this?
A. Select typical installation option and then install IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced V7.5.1.
B. Select typical installation option and import WebSphere Application Server into Installation
Manager,
then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
C. Select custom installation option and then install IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced V7.5.1.
D. Select custom installation option and install a new WebSphere Application Server version
into
Installation Manager, then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
Answer: C

IBM   certification C2180-271   C2180-271

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Code d'Examen: M2090-639
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Big Data Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 51 Q&As

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NO.1 Use cases of analytics of data in motion refers to:
A. Smart Grid Management
B. Real-time promotions
C. Cyber Security
D. ICU Monitoring
E. IT log analysis
F. All of the above
G. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 The analytic capabilities that come built-in with the Big Data platform include:
A. Geospatial
B. Mathematical
C. Predictive
D. Data Mining
E. Statistical
F. All of the above
Answer: F

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NO.3 Infosphere Streams does not feature:
A. Un-clustered runtime for low latency streaming applications
B. Mining toolkit to score data models in real time
C. Analysis of both structured and unstructured data
D. High availability
Answer: A

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NO.4 Top Industry Big Data use cases include:
A. Telcom
B. Healthcare
C. Finance
D. Government
E. Retail
F. Utilities
G. All of the above
Answer: G

certification IBM   M2090-639   M2090-639

NO.5 IBM Big Data platform allows an organization to bring together any data source, at any
velocity, to
generate insight.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

IBM   M2090-639   M2090-639

NO.6 What is NOT an open source component of BigInsights?
A. HBase
B. Pig
C. Hippo
D. Zoo Keeper
E. Jaql
Answer: C

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NO.7 Infosphere BigInsights enables a computing solution that is:
A. Scalable - New nodes can be added as needed, and added without needing to change
data formats.
B. Cost effective - Hadoop brings massively parallel computing to commodity servers. The
result is a
sizable decrease in the cost per terabyte of storage.
C. Flexible -Hadoop is schema-less, and can absorb any type of data, structured or not, and
from any
number of sources.
D. Fault tolerant - When a node is lost, the system redirects work to another location of the
data and
continues processing.
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.8 With a Big Data platform an organization can
A. Discover and experiment
B. Analyze information in motion
C. Analyze extreme volumes of information
D. Manage and plan
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.9 Hadoop is designed to scale up from a single server to thousands of machines, but
with:
A. A very low degree of fault tolerance
B. A very high degree of fault tolerance
C. No Fault tolerance
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.10 With a Big Data platform an organization can
A. Discover and experiment
B. Analyze information in motion
C. Analyze extreme volumes of information
D. Manage and plan
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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IBM meilleur examen P2060-017, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: P2060-017
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM B2B Integration SaaS Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 The three solutions that make up the IBM Sterling Cloud Services or SaaS solutions
are:
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator, IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, and IBM Sterling File
Transfer
Service
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services, and IBM Sterling
B2B
Integrator
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, and IBM
Sterling B2B
Integration Services
D.None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What tool can IBM's business partners leverage that shows how a full outsourced
managed services
operation can show savings and return a handsome ROI in a relatively short time to a
customer?
A.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service Calculator
B.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator Calculator
C.IBM B2B Integration Services ROI Calculator
D.IBM B2B Automation Savings Calculator
Answer: C

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NO.3 What IBM cloud based SaaS solution enables data to be converted from one EDI
format to the required
trading partner's format for their systems?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling Process Automation
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: D

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NO.4 When your customer needs to move broad based megabyte and gigabyte files in the
cloud with a
one-to-many manner with their trading partners, which solution will best meet your
customer's need?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: B

IBM   certification P2060-017   P2060-017

NO.5 The top obstacles of lack of budget and cost of systems that your customer's suppliers
and buyers feel
prevents them from doing more B2B e-Commerce with their trading partners is known as
which of the
following?
A.Total cost of ownership (TCO)
B.Complexity of integration
C.Lack of resources
D.B2B Infrastructure Management
Answer: A

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