SAP meilleur examen C_TBIT44_71, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C_TBIT44_71
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.1))
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 The communication between the Integration Server and the backend applications can be achieved
without adapters.
Which message protocol should you use for this communication type?
A. RFC-XML
B. PI-SOAP Protocol
C. File
D. JDBC 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.2 A special aspect in B2B business processes is that the business partners involved in these processes
do not usually provide information about their internal system landscape.
Which configuration objects are relevant for B2B configuration?
A. Receiver Determination
B. Communication Party
C. Software Component Version (SWCV)
D. Communication Channel
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are supported?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which Process Integration objects can be used in an integration process?
A. All objects displayed in the navigation area of the Integration Builder.
B. All objects within the software component version of the integration process.
C. Only the objects within the namespace of the integration process.
D. All objects displayed in the Process Integration Scenario using this process.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You can create multiple configurations for one Integration Process without changing the appropriate
process definition.
Which of these parameters allows you to achieve this behavior?
A. Process Signature
B. Container Definition
C. Correlation
D. Configurable Parameters in Conditions
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML messages?
A. The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.
B. The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.
C. The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.
D. The quality of service can be 'best effort' (BE) only.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 You have implemented a scenario where IDocs are posted to an ERP system using the receiver IDoc
adapter.
Which statements correctly describe the receiver IDoc adapter of SAP NetWeaver PI?
A. IDoc packages are not supported, unless all IDocs are collected by BPM.
B. Specific fields in the IDoc control record can be overwritten using the 'header mapping' functionality in
the Receiver Agreement.
C. Quality of service EOIO (exactly once in order) is supported, provided that the target system is a SAP
Web AS 6.40 or above.
D. If the target system is SAP Web AS 6.20 or under, then the quality of service BE (best effort) and EO
(exactly once) can be used.
E. A receiver communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 You configure the sender RFC adapter to convert RFC calls from a sender to XML messages. These
XML messages are then sent to the Integration Server or to the PCK.
What is the purpose of the RFC adapter parameter "Program ID"?
A. The Program ID is a unique identifier for outbound proxies.
B. The Program ID must uniquely describe the RFC sender communication channel in the configured
application server gateway.
C. The Program ID identifies proxy classes for Service Interfaces.
D. The Program ID is used in correlation for binding abstract interfaces.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are implementing an IDoc-based scenario using SAP Netweaver PI and more specifically the
sender IDoc adapter.
Which of these steps are mandatory for the sender IDoc adapter to function properly?
A. IDoc metadata must be imported into the Enterprise Services Repository.
B. The Logical System name (ALE name) for the Business System must be defined in the SLD.
C. A sender communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
D. An RFC destination must be defined on the sender system, pointing to the Integration Server client.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Assume that your customer has a scenario in which a database table needs to be queried (i.e. to
perform a SELECT statement and obtain the result set).
What are the viable options for implementing this with the PI JDBC adapter?
A. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
B. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
C. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
D. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 For the delivery mode of an integration process, you can choose between inbound processing with or
without buffering.
Which of these statements correctly describes the Inbound processing mode?
A. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing with buffering.
B. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing without buffering.
C. If you select inbound processing without buffering, the qRFC entry returns an error when a message is
to be delivered to a process instance for which no receive step is active.
D. If you select inbound processing with buffering and there is no active receive step available to receive
an incoming message, the message is buffered in a separate, process-instance-specific queue.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.12 To react to situations where it is not possible or not advisable to continue a process in the normal way,
you can define exceptions.
Which statements correctly describe the triggering of exceptions?
A. A synchronous or asynchronous Send step can trigger an exception when a system error occurs.
B. Every step type can trigger an exception when a permanent error occurs.
C. A Control step can trigger an exception.
D. A Transformation step can trigger an exception.
E. Exceptions can only be triggered by Control steps.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 If a system error occurs in a send step, an alert can be triggered for Alert Management and the
integration process should then be terminated.
Where do you define the Alert Category for the appropriate Control Step?
A. Within the SLD
B. Within the transaction ALRTCATDEF on the Integration Server
C. Within the Enterprise Services Builder
D. Within the Process Editor
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of these operations can be performed by a Container Operation step?
A. Incrementing a counter variable.
B. Appending a message to a multiline container element.
C. Removing a message from a multiline container element.
D. Setting the value of an XML element of a message.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 You have created a deadline branch. When the deadline has expired, the integration process should be
canceled.
How can this be achieved?
A. In the deadline branch, insert a control step that cancels the process.
B. The process is automatically stopped once the deadline has expired.
C. As the process can only be stopped by the administrator, a control step that raises an alert to inform
the administrator has to be inserted.
D. Insert a switch with an appropriate condition to stop the process.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C_TBW45_70
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Business Intelligence with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Organizations that are 'data rich, but information poor' might gain from the business knowledge
discovered through data mining. Which of the following are true regarding data mining? (Choose three)
A. Clustering is a data mining method.
B. Data mining is an analytical approach that looks for hidden information patterns in large databases.
C. Data mining can easily analyze historical information, but is unable to predict future trends.
D. Regression analysis is a data mining method.
E. ETL (Extraction, Transformation and Loading) is a data mining method.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following are valid navigation steps in reporting in SAP NetWeaver BI? (Choose three)
A. Swap one characteristic with another.
B. Filter on a specific characteristic value.
C. Return to Start.
D. Sum and Filter.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 The design mode of the BEx Analyzer allows you to: (Choose two)
A. Add your own navigation controls such as drop down lists and check boxes.
B. Add in your own broadcast scheduling options so users receive the workbook by email and in their SAP
NetWeaver Portal role.
C. Insert results from other data providers into the same workbook.
D. Access a toolbox of predefined macros that can automate common tasks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Valid BI source objects for the BEx Broadcaster include: (Choose three)
A. Queries
B. iViews
C. Workbooks
D. Value Sets
E. Reports created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 Where can variables be created? (Choose two)
A. In the query definition where they are needed.
B. In the BEx Web Application Designer, in the "Data Provider" field.
C. While using a web browser to view query results.
D. When defining exceptions and conditions.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Why are variables used in queries? (Choose three)
A. To limit the scope of a report and improve performance.
B. To improve the reliability of the results.
C. To limit the scope of a report and make it more targeted to a user or group of users.
D. To reduce the number of query definitions by having one query satisfy the needs of many users.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 If two queries are inserted into the same worksheet in a workbook, which of the following is a potential
conflict?
A. The results for one query could affect the results for the other query.
B. The first query on the worksheet is the only query accessible by the user.
C. If the user drills down in the first query, the query result could possibly extend into the area occupied by
the second query.
D. The security settings of the first query would override the security settings of the second query.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A BEx Analyzer workbook can be based on which of the following? (Choose three)
A. A Query
B. A Query view created with the BEx Analyzer
C. An InfoProvider
D. A BEx Report created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements regarding BEx Query Designer are correct? (Choose three)
A. Before defining a formula, you must ensure you have already created any restricted key figures that will
be referenced in the formula.
B. You can only drag and drop multiple characteristics into the query definition if they come from the same
dimension.
C. You can save a query that contains errors.
D. If a query contains errors, the system provides information to help you correct them, including menu
options that may be suitable.
E. You can maintain many of the properties of multiple characteristics or key figures simultaneously.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 One of your customers needs to know the BEx Broadcaster options for sending static snap-shots of
data. What would you tell them? (Choose three)
A. For workbooks, send as E-Mail as a Zip File.
B. For a web template, send as 'Independent HTML File'.
C. For a web template, send as 'HTML with Separate MIME Files' as a Zip File.
D. For a web template, send as an 'Online Link'.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 Your client is interested in the various formats used to distribute BI information. Which of the following
formats are available? (Choose three)
A. Precalculated XML file with separate MIME files.
B. Precalculated BEx Analyzer Workbooks.
C. Precalculated MHTML file.
D. Online links to current data.
E. Precalculated DOC file with separate MIME files.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements best describe the benefit of using data bursting as a broadcasting
distribution type? Data Bursting: (Choose two)
A. Allows you to broadcast report results to large numbers of non-SAP users via email.
B. Provides an easy way to improve the performance of all web-based BEx reports.
C. Provides an effective way to manage security across all BEx reports.
D. Allows you to broadcast user-specific results based on master data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Valid BEx Broadcaster distribution types include: (Choose two)
A. Archive object
B. Email
C. CSV file
D. Printer
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Characteristic value variables...
A. ...are created in the query definition and are therefore only available in that query definition.
B. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of the
same InfoProvider.
C. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of
InfoProviders containing this characteristic.
D. ...can be created for global use on an InfoProvider level, and can be created for local use in the query
definition.
Answer: C

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NO.15 The APD (Analysis Process Designer) in SAP NetWeaver BI provides a mechanism for reading data
from a source and then transferring the analytical results back out to a data target. In this scenario, which
of the following are possible data targets of the APD? (Choose two)
A. Standard DataStore Objects
B. VirtualProviders
C. Meta Data Repository
D. DataStore Objects for direct update
E. InfoObject master data tables
Answer: D,E

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Code d'Examen: C_TFIN22_64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Management Accounting (CO) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer wants to perform cost center planning to reflect different expectations for the future. How
can the customer create different plans in parallel?
A. Use different versions.
B. Use different costing variants.
C. Use different planning areas.
D. Use different valuation areas.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What does the planner profile in cost center accounting determine?
A. The available planning layouts.
B. The required planning sequence.
C. The available planning level.
D. The available planning methods (for example, top-down, forecast).
Answer: A

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NO.3 What does the SAP Web AS provide?
A. Real-time data exchange with all SAP systems.
B. Master data harmonization cross SAP NetWeaver.
C. J2EE and ABAP in a single environment.
D. Storage of all transactional documents in one single database.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which planning transactions create secondary costs on the receivers?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Plan assessment
B. Transfer of depreciations from Asset Accounting
C. Transfer of personnel cost from HR
D. Plan distribution
E. Activity input planning
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which of the following is a typical sequence of steps in a Purchase to Pay process?
A. Purchase requisition -> Purchase order -> Goods receipt -> Invoice verification Payment
B. Purchase requisition -> Goods issue -> Purchase verification -> Invoice receipts Payment
C. Purchase requisition -> Goods verification -> Purchase receipts -> Invoice receipts Payment
D. Purchase order -> Purchase requisition -> Goods receipt -> Invoice verification Payment
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which master data is required for a direct activity allocation? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this
question.
A. Activity type
B. Cost center
C. Allocation cycle
D. Activity price
E. Secondary cost element
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 In January, you posted a headcount of 10 employees as an actual statistical key figure on a cost center.
The key figure is defined as fixed value. In July, the headcount is reduced to 8 employees for the rest of
the year. What headcount do you have to post?
A. -2 in each period July to December.
B. -2 in period July.
C. 8 in each period July to December.
D. 8 in period July.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which data do you need to set up an accrual calculation with the percentage method? Note: There are
2 correct answers to this question.
A. Accrual settlement rules with percentage method.
B. Secondary cost element (category 31) as accrual cost element.
C. Primary cost element (category 3) as accrual cost element.
D. Accrual allocation cycle with sender receiver segments.
E. Cost center or internal order (order category 2) as credit object.
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 Which of the following are the usage scenarios for Solution Manager.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Implementation
B. Optimization
C. Retirement
D. Operations
E. Validation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Which of the following is the typical sequence of steps in an ASAP roadmap?
A. Business blueprint -> Project preparation -> Final preparation -> Realization -> Go-live and support
B. Project preparation -> Final preparation -> Business blueprint -> Realization -> Go-live and support
C. Project preparation -> Business blueprint -> Realization -> Final preparation -> Go-live and support
D. Project preparation -> Realization -> Business blueprint -> Final preparation -> Go-live and support
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which information is transferred when you settle an Internal Order to costing-based CO-PA?
A. Cost component split of the order cost.
B. Characteristic values of the settlement rule.
C. Variance categories of the internal order.
D. All information of the internal order master data.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer wants to allocate internal and external costs, based on statistical key figure values, to the
receivers. Which method do you choose?
A. Assessment
B. Overhead calculation
C. Distribution
D. Settlement
Answer: A

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NO.13 A company wants to prevent postings of more than 5000 EUR on cost centers by generating an error
message. What do you recommend?
A. Activating and using availability control for cost centers.
B. Creating a substitution rule in the IMG.
C. Creating a lock amount on the control tab in the cost center master data.
D. Creating a validation rule in the IMG.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following are characteristics of Master Data? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this
question.
A. Is typically assigned to organizational levels.
B. Must be assigned on client level.
C. Is used long-term for multiple business processes.
D. Cannot be changed after creation.
E. Is a template for transactional data.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 What is the name of the infrastructure that supports core business solutions in four subcomponents
including people integration, information integration, process integration, and application platform?
A. SAP NetWeaver
B. SAP Business Process Management
C. SAP Exchange Infrastructure
D. SAP Web AS
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C_TSCM62_64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding the processing of the billing due list are correct? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The billing due list is used to process sales orders and deliveries that are due for billing.
B. The billing due list is used for the periodic creation of billing documents.
C. You can only use the billing due list to process documents due for billing on the same date.
D. Only the general billing interface can be used for processing the billing due list.
E. There are various selection criteria available for processing the billing due list, such as sold-to party,
sales organization and shipping point.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note: There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic substitution
process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer pricing
procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which of the following Service Desk features provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an
entire SAP solution centrally?
A. root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following elements can directly influence whether an availability check will be performed?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The schedule line category in the sales document
B. The item category in the delivery document
C. The check group in the material master
D. The item category in the sales document
E. The sales document type
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed schedule line in the
sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation.?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to the plant
with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C

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NO.6 During sales order processing, a user will be alerted when stock is not available for material entered in
the sales order if the availability check was carried out. In which of the following ways will the user be
alerted about this situation?
A. An error message will appear on the status bar alerting the user to the situation.
B. The schedule line will be marked and highlighted by the system.
C. The availability control screen will be displayed.
D. The incompletion log will display the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is to be billed on the last day of the month, regardless of which day of the month the order
and delivery are processed. Which of the following procedures will fulfill this requirement?
A. Maintaining a customer-specific billing due list variant and scheduling a periodic job.
B. Maintaining a factory calendar with a single date per month and assigning it to the customer master
record of the payer.
C. Maintaining a billing date profile and assigning it to the sales document type.
D. Using the condition technique, assigning a billing date determination profile to the customer master
record of the payer.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You want to restrict what materials a customer can order. What do you use to achieve this?
A. Material group
B. Assortment module
C. Material listing
D. Product hierarchy
Answer: C

SAP   C_TSCM62_64   C_TSCM62_64

NO.10 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components ensures company-wide unification of data and
information in heterogeneous IT environments?
A. Business Warehouse
B. Knowledge Management
C. Enterprise Portal
D. Master Data Management
Answer: D

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NO.11 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types contains
the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11 Description: Sales
Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for completeness
and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered goods and
the free goods.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is controlled by the configuration of the billing type?
A. How account determination should take place.
B. How the item category within the billing document will be determined.
C. If a billing plan will be determined when using this billing type.
D. If order related billing is supported when using this billing type.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following data elements represent standard split criteria in billing creation? Note: There
are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Material group
B. Billing date
C. Terms of payment
D. Payer
E. Order reason
Answer: B,C,D

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Code d'Examen: C_TFIN52_05
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Solution Consultant Financials - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 2005)
Questions et réponses: 299 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are correct?
(Choose Four)
A. The company code is always a required entry.
B. An account group always gets assigned to a customer.
C. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the company code
D. The account number may be assigned by the user externally.
E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the account group
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.2 Which of the following about vendor transaction is correct (Multi)? (Choose Two)
A. A vendor down payment request is a noted item.
B. A vendor down payment request cannot be included in payment program to produce down payment
C. A vendor down payment is cleared after final invoice is received from vendor.
D. Vendor down payment is shown on balance sheet under normal reconciliation account for payables.
E. Special g/l transaction is one, which is included in spl purpose ledger under coding block in G/L
account
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Layout for the master data of each asset class defines
A. number of tab pages
B. field groups that appear on tab pages
C. names of tab pages
D. all are correct
Answer: D

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NO.4 Controlling area can include one or more company codes
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.5 Drilldown reporting is a tool that enables you to analyze G/L account transaction figure and financial
statements
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)
A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Chart of depreciation is a catalog of country specific depreciation areas structured according to various
business aspects
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.8 When you create asset master records this data is automatically adopted from the asset class you
specify
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)
A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to a payment
method in the payment program configuration
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 In a Payment method definition: (Choose Two)
A. Define allowed currency for company code
B. Define allowed currency for country level
C. Define a maximum and min payment
D. Define house bank link
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Chart of depreciation (Choose Three)
A. is assigned to company code
B. you cannot add/delete additional areas
C. it is also possible to open depreciation areas after the production start of the system
D. you can delete areas you do not need
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 All reconciliation accounts and all G/L accounts with open item transactions in foreign currency must
be assigned to the G/L account for realized losses and gains. Which of the following options exist for this
assignment: (Choose Two)
A. A single G/L account can not be used per currencies and currency types.
B. A single G/L account can be used per currency.
C. A single G/L account can not be used per currency type
D. A single G/L account can be used for all currencies and currency types
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Payment Medium Workbench. (Choose Three)
A. New format can be created with little programming experience.
B. PMW facilitates uniformity.
C. Before PMW it is easy to maintain the program used in payment media.
D. PMW facilitates for select vendor open items during automatic payment run
E. In PMW format can easily be changed with making modification.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.14 Asset classes (Choose Five)
A. consist of a master data section and a depreciation area section
B. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets, you can choose that
they be specified by the system
C. are assigned to at least one chart of depreciation
D. consist of a master data section only
E. asset classes are created at client level
F. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets
G. you can suppress individual depreciation areas in each asset class
H. asset classes are created at company code level
Answer: A,B,C,E,G

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NO.15 Profit and Loss using the Period Accounting and Cost of Sales Accounting:
A. The operating result can be different.
B. In Cost of Sales accounting, the output of a period and the total cost of this period are
summarized
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. In period accounting the sales revenue for a period and sales costs of the period are
summarized.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You define number assignment as either internal or external
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.17 Several charts of depreciation can also be assigned to an asset class
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.18 mySAP ERP delivers standard depreciation areas and additional areas cannot be defined
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.19 Highest priority for deriving functional area is:
A. Manual Entry
B. Validation
C. CO document
D. Substitution
E. CO Master Data
Answer: A

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NO.20 Each company code has its own number range and company codes cannot share number ranges
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP   C_TFIN52_05   certification C_TFIN52_05

NO.21 Asset class is a selection criterion in all standard reports in FI-AA
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.22 Debit Balance Check. (Choose Three)
A. Debit balance check can be maintained in the Vendor line items.
B. Vendor who has a debit balance, all of his line items always shown in the exception list
C. We can change the debit balance check.
D. Debit balance check can be carried out after payment run.
E. Debit Balance check is required if Vendor has a debit balance.
F. Debit balance check is carried out after payment proposal.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.23 You cannot specify attributes of each individual depreciation area
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of following statements are correct?
A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the customers in the R/3
System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master record contains a
telephone number.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Chart of depreciation is assigned to company code and necessary data for asset accounting is added
to company code. Hence company code is available for use in asset accounting
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.26 Cross company code Transaction
A. For cross company code transaction no configuration needs to be maintained
B. Cross company code document Transaction number contain company code of second
company number, document number of first company code and fiscal year.
C. All wrong
Answer: C

SAP   C_TFIN52_05   C_TFIN52_05   C_TFIN52_05   C_TFIN52_05 examen

NO.27 Screen layout rules control
A. field selection
B. all are correct
C. maintenance level
D. references/copies
Answer: B

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NO.28 An account group (multi) (Choose Three)
A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.29 Chart of accounts can be modified to fit your requirements, but chart of depreciation is always country
specific
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP examen   C_TFIN52_05   C_TFIN52_05

NO.30 Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct.?
A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit and loss
statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the financial
statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement, not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: C-TBIT44-71
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.1))
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 For the delivery mode of an integration process, you can choose between inbound
processing with or
without buffering.
Which of these statements correctly describes the Inbound processing mode?
A. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing with buffering.
B. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing without buffering.
C. If you select inbound processing without buffering, the qRFC entry returns an error when a
message is
to be delivered to a process instance for which no receive step is active.
D. If you select inbound processing with buffering and there is no active receive step
available to receive
an incoming message, the message is buffered in a separate, process-instance-specific
queue.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 To react to situations where it is not possible or not advisable to continue a process in
the normal way,
you can define exceptions.
Which statements correctly describe the triggering of exceptions?
A. A synchronous or asynchronous Send step can trigger an exception when a system error
occurs.
B. Every step type can trigger an exception when a permanent error occurs.
C. A Control step can trigger an exception.
D. A Transformation step can trigger an exception.
E. Exceptions can only be triggered by Control steps.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 The communication between the Integration Server and the backend applications can
be achieved
without adapters.
Which message protocol should you use for this communication type?
A. RFC-XML
B. PI-SOAP Protocol
C. File
D. JDBC 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have implemented a scenario where IDocs are posted to an ERP system using the
receiver IDoc
adapter.
Which statements correctly describe the receiver IDoc adapter of SAP NetWeaver PI?
A. IDoc packages are not supported, unless all IDocs are collected by BPM.
B. Specific fields in the IDoc control record can be overwritten using the 'header mapping'
functionality in
the Receiver Agreement.
C. Quality of service EOIO (exactly once in order) is supported, provided that the target
system is a SAP
Web AS 6.40 or above.
D. If the target system is SAP Web AS 6.20 or under, then the quality of service BE (best
effort) and EO
(exactly once) can be used.
E. A receiver communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 You can create multiple configurations for one Integration Process without changing the
appropriate
process definition.
Which of these parameters allows you to achieve this behavior?
A. Process Signature
B. Container Definition
C. Correlation
D. Configurable Parameters in Conditions
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have created a deadline branch. When the deadline has expired, the integration
process should be
canceled.
How can this be achieved?
A. In the deadline branch, insert a control step that cancels the process.
B. The process is automatically stopped once the deadline has expired.
C. As the process can only be stopped by the administrator, a control step that raises an alert
to inform
the administrator has to be inserted.
D. Insert a switch with an appropriate condition to stop the process.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You configure the sender RFC adapter to convert RFC calls from a sender to XML
messages. These
XML messages are then sent to the Integration Server or to the PCK.
What is the purpose of the RFC adapter parameter "Program ID"?
A. The Program ID is a unique identifier for outbound proxies.
B. The Program ID must uniquely describe the RFC sender communication channel in the
configured
application server gateway.
C. The Program ID identifies proxy classes for Service Interfaces.
D. The Program ID is used in correlation for binding abstract interfaces.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of these operations can be performed by a Container Operation step?
A. Incrementing a counter variable.
B. Appending a message to a multiline container element.
C. Removing a message from a multiline container element.
D. Setting the value of an XML element of a message.
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which Process Integration objects can be used in an integration process?
A. All objects displayed in the navigation area of the Integration Builder.
B. All objects within the software component version of the integration process.
C. Only the objects within the namespace of the integration process.
D. All objects displayed in the Process Integration Scenario using this process.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are implementing an IDoc-based scenario using SAP Netweaver PI and more
specifically the
sender IDoc adapter.
Which of these steps are mandatory for the sender IDoc adapter to function properly?
A. IDoc metadata must be imported into the Enterprise Services Repository.
B. The Logical System name (ALE name) for the Business System must be defined in the
SLD.
C. A sender communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
D. An RFC destination must be defined on the sender system, pointing to the Integration
Server client.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 A special aspect in B2B business processes is that the business partners involved in
these processes
do not usually provide information about their internal system landscape.
Which configuration objects are relevant for B2B configuration?
A. Receiver Determination
B. Communication Party
C. Software Component Version (SWCV)
D. Communication Channel
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML
messages?
A. The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.
B. The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.
C. The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.
D. The quality of service can be 'best effort' (BE) only.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are
supported?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 If a system error occurs in a send step, an alert can be triggered for Alert Management
and the
integration process should then be terminated.
Where do you define the Alert Category for the appropriate Control Step?
A. Within the SLD
B. Within the transaction ALRTCATDEF on the Integration Server
C. Within the Enterprise Services Builder
D. Within the Process Editor
Answer: B

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NO.15 Assume that your customer has a scenario in which a database table needs to be
queried (i.e. to
perform a SELECT statement and obtain the result set).
What are the viable options for implementing this with the PI JDBC adapter?
A. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
B. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
C. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
D. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: C-TFIN52-05
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Solution Consultant Financials - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 2005)
Questions et réponses: 299 Q&As

C-TFIN52-05 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/C-TFIN52-05.html

NO.1 Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct.?
A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit
and loss
statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the
financial
statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you
are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement,
not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.
Answer: E

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NO.2 When you create asset master records this data is automatically adopted from the
asset class you
specify
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.3 In a Payment method definition: (Choose Two)
A. Define allowed currency for company code
B. Define allowed currency for country level
C. Define a maximum and min payment
D. Define house bank link
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Asset classes (Choose Five)
A. consist of a master data section and a depreciation area section
B. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets, you can
choose that
they be specified by the system
C. are assigned to at least one chart of depreciation
D. consist of a master data section only
E. asset classes are created at client level
F. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets
G. you can suppress individual depreciation areas in each asset class
H. asset classes are created at company code level
Answer: A,B,C,E,G

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NO.5 Controlling area can include one or more company codes
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.6 Chart of depreciation (Choose Three)
A. is assigned to company code
B. you cannot add/delete additional areas
C. it is also possible to open depreciation areas after the production start of the system
D. you can delete areas you do not need
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Each company code has its own number range and company codes cannot share
number ranges
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.8 Payment Medium Workbench. (Choose Three)
A. New format can be created with little programming experience.
B. PMW facilitates uniformity.
C. Before PMW it is easy to maintain the program used in payment media.
D. PMW facilitates for select vendor open items during automatic payment run
E. In PMW format can easily be changed with making modification.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)
A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program
configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to
a payment
method in the payment program configuration
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 Layout for the master data of each asset class defines
A. number of tab pages
B. field groups that appear on tab pages
C. names of tab pages
D. all are correct
Answer: D

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NO.11 Drilldown reporting is a tool that enables you to analyze G/L account transaction figure
and financial
statements
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.12 Chart of accounts can be modified to fit your requirements, but chart of depreciation is
always country
specific
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.13 Chart of depreciation is assigned to company code and necessary data for asset
accounting is added
to company code. Hence company code is available for use in asset accounting
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.14 Profit and Loss using the Period Accounting and Cost of Sales Accounting:
A. The operating result can be different.
B. In Cost of Sales accounting, the output of a period and the total cost of this period are
summarized
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. In period accounting the sales revenue for a period and sales costs of the period are
summarized.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Chart of depreciation is a catalog of country specific depreciation areas structured
according to various
business aspects
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.16 Screen layout rules control
A. field selection
B. all are correct
C. maintenance level
D. references/copies
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following about vendor transaction is correct (Multi)? (Choose Two)
A. A vendor down payment request is a noted item.
B. A vendor down payment request cannot be included in payment program to produce down
payment
C. A vendor down payment is cleared after final invoice is received from vendor.
D. Vendor down payment is shown on balance sheet under normal reconciliation account for
payables.
E. Special g/l transaction is one, which is included in spl purpose ledger under coding block
in G/L
account
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 Debit Balance Check. (Choose Three)
A. Debit balance check can be maintained in the Vendor line items.
B. Vendor who has a debit balance, all of his line items always shown in the exception list
C. We can change the debit balance check.
D. Debit balance check can be carried out after payment run.
E. Debit Balance check is required if Vendor has a debit balance.
F. Debit balance check is carried out after payment proposal.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.19 mySAP ERP delivers standard depreciation areas and additional areas cannot be
defined
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.20 You define number assignment as either internal or external
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.21 You cannot specify attributes of each individual depreciation area
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.22 Several charts of depreciation can also be assigned to an asset class
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.23 An account group (multi) (Choose Three)
A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.24 Highest priority for deriving functional area is:
A. Manual Entry
B. Validation
C. CO document
D. Substitution
E. CO Master Data
Answer: A

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NO.25 All reconciliation accounts and all G/L accounts with open item transactions in foreign
currency must
be assigned to the G/L account for realized losses and gains. Which of the following options
exist for this
assignment: (Choose Two)
A. A single G/L account can not be used per currencies and currency types.
B. A single G/L account can be used per currency.
C. A single G/L account can not be used per currency type
D. A single G/L account can be used for all currencies and currency types
Answer: B,D

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NO.26 Asset class is a selection criterion in all standard reports in FI-AA
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are
correct?
(Choose Four)
A. The company code is always a required entry.
B. An account group always gets assigned to a customer.
C. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or
optional,
depending upon the company code
D. The account number may be assigned by the user externally.
E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or
optional,
depending upon the account group
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.28 Which of following statements are correct?
A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are
already created in
financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the
customers in the R/3
System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are
already created in
purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master
record contains a
telephone number.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Cross company code Transaction
A. For cross company code transaction no configuration needs to be maintained
B. Cross company code document Transaction number contain company code of second
company number, document number of first company code and fiscal year.
C. All wrong
Answer: C

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NO.30 You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)
A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above
Answer: A,B

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Les spécialiste profitant leurs expériences et connaissances font sortir les documentations particulière ciblées au test SAP C-TFIN52-05 pour répondre une grande demande des candidats. Maintenant, la Q&A plus nouvelle, la version plus proche de test SAP C-TFIN52-05 réel est lancée. C'est possible à réussir 100% avec le produit de SAP C-TFIN52-05. Si malheureusement, vous ne passez pas le test, votre argent sera tout rendu. Vous pouvez télécharger le démo gratuit en Internet pour examiner la qualité de Q&A. N'hésitez plus d'ajouter le produit au panier, Pass4Test peut vous aider à réussir le rêve.