2014年2月27日星期四

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Code d'Examen: LOT-804
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Using JavaScript in IBM Lotus Domino 8 Applications)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 .Look at the following JavaScript code segment:
var fullStr = new String( "Hello World!")
;
var subS = "World"
;
var subStart =<MISSING CODE>
Which one of the following should be placed in the <MISSING CODE> to find the position of
a
substring within a string object?
A. fullStr.indexOf(subS);
B. subStr.indexOf(fullS);
C. substring(fullStr, subS);
D. fullStr.substring(0, subS);
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Aaron has written the following JavaScript for the onClick event of button: a = "2" + 2; alert (a);
What will happen when the button is clicked?
A. An alert box will display: 4
B. An alert box will display: 22
C. A blank alert box will display
D. No alert box will display, due to the JavaScript error
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Given the following:
<INPUT TYPE=button NAME="submitBtn" VALUE="Submit" onClick="submitMe(this.form)"
>
Which one of the following is the "submitMe(this.form)" portion of the tag called?
A. Button event
B. Event handler
C. Button method
D. onClick method
Answer: B

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NO.4 .Ann created the following code segment:
function checksubject(
)
{
if(window.document.forms[0].Subject.value==""
)
{
alert("Please enter a subject.")
;
window.document.forms[0].Subject.focus(
)
}
else
{
window.document.forms[0].submit(
)
}
Which one of the following could Ann place between the function name and the if statement to
prevent the need to type window.document.forms[0] each time it is needed?
A. functionchecksubject(
)
{ (this)
{ if(Subject.value=""
)
B. functionchecksubject(
)
{ with(this)
{ if(Subject.value=""
)
C. functionchecksubject(
)
{
(window.document.forms[0]
)
{ if(Subject.value==""
)
D. functionchecksubject(
)
{ with(window.document.forms[0]
)
{ if(Subject.value==""
)
Answer: D

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NO.5 .Rashida needs to display the current date, in dd-mmm-yyyy format, in an alert message. For
example, the first day of the 2007 should be displayed as 01-Jan-2007. So far, she has written
these lines in a new function that she will use to create the date string: function getDateDMY()
{
var months = new Array("Jan", "Feb", "Mar", "Apr", "May", "Jun", "Jul", "Aug", "Sep"
,
"Oct", "Nov", "Dec")
;
var dt = new Date()
;
<MISSING CODE>
}
What should Rashida add in place of the <MISSING CODE>
?
A. var dd = dt.getDay()
;
var mmm = dt.getMonth()
;
var yyyy = dt.getFullYear()
;
return dd + "-" + months[mmm] + "-" + yyyy;
B. var dd = dt.getDay()
;
var mmm = dt.getMonth()
;
var yyyy = dt.getFullYear()
;
return = dd + "-" + months.options[mmm] + "-" + yyyy;
C. var dd = dt.getDate()
;
if (dd < 10) { dd = "0" + dd
}
var mmm = dt.getMonth()
;
var yyyy = dt.getFullYear()
;
return dd + "-" + months[mmm] + "-" + yyyy;
D. var dd = dt.getDate()
;
if (dd < 10) { dd = "0" + parseInt(dd)
}
var mmm = dt.getMonth()
;
var yyyy = dt.getFullYear()
;
return = dd + "-" + months[mmm] + "-" + parseInt(yyyy)
;
Answer: C

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NO.6 .The following code will produce a run-time error:
{ // Line 1
path=location.pathname.toLowerCase( ); // Line 2
nsfPos=path.indexOf(".nsf"); // Line 3
path=path.substring(0, nsfpos+5); // Line 4
}
Which one of the lines is incorrect?
A. Line 1
B. Line 2
C. Line 3
D. Line 4
Answer: D

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NO.7 .Inga wants to determine in her JavaScript if the user is using the Notes client or a Web browser.
Which one of the following JavaScript properties will tell her that information?
A. window.version;
B. navigator.appName;
C. navigator.clientType;
D. You cannot determine this using JavaScript.
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Jerry wants to write an if-then statement in JavaScript that evaluates to "true" if the values of the
variables string1 and string2 are NOT equal. How should he code the first line of the if-then
statement?
A. if (string1 <> string2)
B. if (string1 != string2)
C. if (!(string1 = string2))
D. if (equals(string1, string2))
Answer: B

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NO.9 .Marie is getting an error in the following line of JavaScript code that is attached to a button on
A Notes Form:
totalAttempts[0] = 1;
How can she add error checking to this code to handle the error?
A. if (isError(totalAttempts[0] = 1))
{
alert ("totalAttempts not defined")
;
}
B. try
{
totalAttempts[0] = 1;
} catch (e)
{
alert ("totalAttempts not defined")
;
}
C. errorHandle messageAlert;
totalAttempts[0] = 1;
messageAlert: alert ("totalAttempts not defined")
;
D. onError GoTo messageAlert;
totalAttempts[0] = 1;
messageAlert: alert ("totalAttempts not defined")
;
Answer: B

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NO.10 .Hanna needs to write a function that will allow her to set a cookie and have the cookie expire when
the browser is closed. Which function below will meet these goals?
A. functionsetCookie(cName, cValue)
{
document.cookie = cName + "=" + escape(cValue)
;
}
B. functionsetCookie(cName, cValue)
{
var currDt = new Date()
;
document.cookie = cName + ";" + escape(cValue) + ";" + currDt.getTime()
;
}
C. functionsetCookie(cName, cValue, cKeepDays) { var currDt = new Date()
;
var expireDt = new Date()
;
expireDt.setTime( currDt.getTime() + (60*60*24*cKeepDays) )
;
document.cookie = cName + "=" + escape(cValue) + ";expireDt=" + expireDt.toGMT()
;
}
D. functionsetCookie(cName, cValue, cKeepDays)
{
var expireDt = new Date()
;
if (cKeepDays != null)
{
expireDt.setTime( expireDt.getTime() + (1000*60*24*cKeepDays) )
;
}
document.cookie = cName + "=" + escape(cValue) + ";expireDt=" + expireDt.toGMT()
;
}
Answer: A

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NO.11 .Uma has written the following code to compare two values in the form onSubmit event:
resp=document.forms[0].city.value;
if (resp = 'Boston'
)
{
alert ("You are from Boston.")
;
} else
{
alert ("You are not from Boston.")
;
}
;
Uma tests her form. However, every time she saves it, the alert says "You are from Boston."
,
even when she enters "New York". Which one of the following causes this to happen?
A. The form name should be used to reference the form.
B. The city field on the form is named "City", not "city".
C. The comparison operator to test equality should be "==".
D. There is no "End If" at the end of the If statement block.
Answer: C

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NO.12 .Consider the following:
<INPUT TYPE=button NAME="submitBtn" VALUE="Submit" onClick="submitMe(this.form)"
>
Which one of the following does the JavaScript event handler do?
A. It submits the current HTML form.
B. It submits the current HTML page.
C. It calls a JavaScript function called submitMe( ) and passes the first form object on the current
page.
D. It calls a JavaScript function called submitMe( ) and passes the form object that contains the
button.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Look at the following code for the onClick event of a button: function printvar(
)
{
var1 = 20; alert( 'the value of var1 is ' + var1 )
;
}
var var1 = 10;
printvar()
;
Which one of the following will be the value of var1 in the alert message?
A. 10
B. 20
C. "10"
D. undefined
Answer: B

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NO.14 .Which one of the following designated lines has incorrect code?
// initialize the variables
secsPerMin = 60; // <LINE A>
var minsPerHour = 60;
var hoursPerDay = 24;
var daysPerYear = 365;
// perform calculations
var secsPerDay = secsPerMin * minsPerHour * hoursPerDay; //<LINE B> var secsPerYear
=
secsPerDay * daysPerYear;
document.writeln("<b>There are ")
;
document.writeln(secsperYear); //<LINE C>
document.writeln(" seconds per year.</b><p>"); //<LINE D>
A. <LINE A>
B. <LINE B>
C. <LINE C>
D. <LINE D>
Answer: C

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NO.15 .Devon has placed the following code in the JS Header event of a form: function userConfirm(
)
{
if( confirm( "Do you wish to continue" )
)
{
promptUser( )
;
}
}
function promptUser(
)
{
x = prompt( "Please enter some text", "" )
;
alert( x )
;
}
There is a button on the form where the onClick event is: userConfirm( )
.
Which one of the following will happen when the user chooses "Yes" in the confirmation prompt?
A. ThepromptUser( ) function will run and display an error message, "Please enter some text".
B. ThepromptUser( ) function will run and ask the user to input a value, which will then be posted
in a confirm prompt.
C. A run-time error will appear, stating that thepromptUser( ) function is undefined, since it was
defined after the userConfirm( ) function.
D. ThepromptUser( ) function will run with an input prompt asking the user to input a value, which
will then be posted in an alert prompt.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: LOT-829
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 6 Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 .Abigail is a developer working with the theme policy for her corporate theme for
WebSphere Portal 6. Theme policies are managed by administrators, but she can also use a
theme policy in what other type of design artifact?
A. JSP
B. POJO
C. Java class
D. Ajax requests
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Nell is using RAD 7 and would like to minimize the startup time of her local
WebSphere Portal 6 server. Which approach should she take to accomplish this?
A. Deselect allportlets that do not need to be started for testing
B. Enable "Optimize server for testing and developing" in the servers view
C. Modify the batch file that startsWebSphere Portal to include -Xquickstart
D. Modify theJAVA_Size environment variable for the development machine
Answer: B

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NO.3 .The Personalization resource wizard in Rational Application Developer is used to generate the
content spot classes and resource collection classes. If the content spot and resource collection
will be used by multiple applications, then those classes should be:
A. Deployed together with the relatedportlets in the portlet application WAR file.
B. Placed in theWebSphere Application Server shared library.
C. Placed directly in the pzn_root/pzn/v6.0/lib directory.
D. Uploaded using the Personalization interface.
Answer: B

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NO.4 .For portal business processes that should be processed within portal, what is used to lookup the
task page definition at runtime?
A. Client UI identifier
B. Process Template Name
C. Task instance object identifier (TKIID)
D. Staff activity identifier
Answer: A

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NO.5 .Will is developing a business process application, and is at the point where he is initiating the
process instance. He has used a JNDI lookup to obtain a reference to the process server remote
EJB interface. Next he codes the portlet to start the process with an input message. Once the
process starts, what is returned to the caller by the operation?
A. The process-instance name
B. The process template name
C. The object ID of the new process instance
D. A reference to theBusinessProcess session bean
Answer: C

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NO.6 .Mary is developing a composite application, in which one of the components requires access to a
back-end system. Which of the following is the WebSphere Portal mechanism for managing user
access to back end systems without having to continuously provide new credentials?
A. Siteminder
B. Credential Vault Service
C. Tivoli Application Security
D. WEBSeal Authentication Proxy
Answer: B

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NO.7 .Fiona is developing a series of portlets that will eventually work together and exchange data,
providing a more dynamic user experience. What portlet service does WebSphere Portal provide
that will allow her portlets to exchange data?
A. PUMA SPI
B. Property Broker
C. Credential Vault
D. Cooperative Interface
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following actions is required in order to launch the Wireless Markup Language (WML)
device emulator when using WebSphere Portal?
A. Specify Wireless Markup Language the markup in portlet.xml file
B. Select "Enable Wireless Markup Language Setting" option
C. EnableTranscoding
D. Enable Wireless Markup Language Markup
Answer: C

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NO.9 .Inez is developing a composite application and wishes to leverage the related public interfaces
available to her as a developer. Which of the following interfaces contains a method to provide
supported parameters during creation of a business component?
A. Lifecycle
B. Membership
C. Templatable
D. DisplayInfo
Answer: A

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NO.10 .A team of developers must improve Portal layout and navigational features. What tool in Rational
Application Developer V7.0 should they use?
A. Portlet Designer
B. Page Designer
C. Portal Designer
D. Customization Designer
Answer: C

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NO.11 .Ivan is configuring his local development machine with a deployment of WebSphere Portal 6 for
testing. Which list below describes the software that must be installed in order for his portal server
to run?
A. WebSphere Application Server, an LDAP v3 server, and IBM DB2
B. WebSphere Application Server, IBM Cloudscape, and Lotus Domino
C. WebSphere Application Server, IBM Cloudscape, and a WebSphere Portal instance
D. WebSphere Application Server, an LDAP v3 server, IBM Cloudscape, and an external HTTP
server
Answer: C

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NO.12 .Tony is just beginning to work with a Faces portlet in RAD. Since RAD automatically switched to
the Web Perspective when he started the project, where can he find Enhanced Faces
Components (such as a Data Table) to 'drag and drop" onto the page editor?
A. In the Palette
B. In the Quick Edit view
C. In the Page Data view
D. In the Project Explorer
Answer: A

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NO.13 .Andy is preparing to install Rational Application Developer 7. What level of authority must his ID
have on a Microsoft Windows installation?
A. Root access
B. Administrator
C. Read and Edit
D. Modify and Read
Answer: B

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NO.14 .Which of the following is valid about the IBM Workplace Solutions Catalog?
A. Portlet technology previews developed outside of IBM may be made available through the IBM
Workplace Solutions Catalog.
B. Developers need to download the Rational Application Developer from IBM the
Workplace Solutions Catalog.
C. Allportlets on the IBM Workplace Solutions Catalog are available as open source so developers
can use the code as a basis for new portlets.
D. Portlets created by vendors like are available through the IBM Workplace Solutions Catalog.
Answer: D

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NO.15 .Hallie is developing a custom theme for her portal project. What is unique about the style sheets
associated with a WebSphere Portal theme?
A. Style sheets are saved as JSPs
B. CSS files must be deployed asportlet WARs
C. All styles must beprepended with "portal-theme"
D. The defaultcss must begin with a portal style class declaration
Answer: A

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NO.16 .Bethany is creating a custom mail portlet service for use by several portlets. She has defined the
interface, written the code for her services, and created and installed the service's .jar file on her
portal server. Before she can code her portlets to access the service, what final step must be
taken?
A. Register the service
B. Extend thePortletService interface
C. Specify action processing for the service
D. Modify the credential vault slot for the service user role
Answer: A

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NO.17 .Tracy is building a composite application for WebSphere Portal 6. What are the two fundamental
aspects of composite applications?
A. Libraries and instances
B. Applications and workflow
C. Templates and applications
D. Templates and business components
Answer: C

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NO.18 .For a web application with multiple Struts portlets, the BEST way to define the initial views of the
individual portlets is to specify them:
A. In the welcome file list in the application's web.xml.
B. In theviewMode.page preferences attributes in the individual portlet.xml.
C. AsviewMode properties in the actions section in the individual struts-config.xml.
D. As view attributes in the supports section of the individual portlet.xml.
Answer: B

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NO.19 .A developer needs to export a portlet from a portal installation so that a collaborative world-wide
team can test it. What is the BEST out-of-box option that the developer can choose to export this
Portlet?
A. Use Export XMLPortlet
B. Use Upload and ExportPortlet
C. Use Manage PagesPortlet
D. Copy and Paste thePortlet across machines
Answer: C

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NO.20 .Xavier is working with a IBM Workplace Web Content Management application, extending it with
the API. Which item is the primary focus of the API?
A. The library
B. The workspace
C. The property broker
D. The document manager component
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-050
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Quality Manager v2.0)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three platforms are supported by the data warehouse server of IBM Rational Insight? (Choose
three.)
A. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
C. SUSE Linux
D. Red Hat Linux
Answer: A,B,D

IBM examen   000-050   certification 000-050

NO.2 Which statement is true about review processes?
A. Authorization is off by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as Pending.
B. Authorization is on by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as Pending.
C. Authorization is off by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as New.
D. Authorization is on by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as New.
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-050   certification 000-050   certification 000-050   000-050

NO.3 When generating a new test execution record from the Test Execution Record section of an open test
case, which tabs does the Advanced Properties link show?
A. One-way, Pair-wise, and Four-way Interaction
B. Test Plan, Test Suite, and Test Environment
C. Lab resources, Reservations, and Milestones
D. Inclusions, Exclusions, and Weightings
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-050   certification 000-050   000-050   certification 000-050

NO.4 Who typically creates the test plan initially with Rational Quality Manager?
A. Test Lab Manager
B. Test Engineer
C. Test Manager
D. Project Manager
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-050   000-050 examen   000-050

NO.5 You can copy content from an external document and paste it into which sections of the test plan?
A. Summary, Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria
B. Summary, Pre-Condition, and Post-Condition
C. Summary, Quality Objectives, and Resources
D. Summary, Business Objectives, and Test Objectives
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-050   000-050 examen   000-050

NO.6 What does the Platform Coverage tab of the Test Environments section show?
A. a list of platforms that will be supported for all test cases
B. a list of test execution records that will be generated for the test plan
C. a non-binding list of platforms the user plans to cover
D. a binding list of platforms that must be covered in the test plan
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-050   000-050 examen

NO.7 Which Custom Reporting component stores the reports, data source connections, and server and user
preferences?
A. Data Warehouse
B. WebSphere Application Server
C. Framework Manager
D. Content Store
Answer: D

IBM   000-050   certification 000-050   certification 000-050   000-050 examen

NO.8 The list of test environments can be used for what purpose?
A. to automatically locate resources containing the specified environments
B. to automatically generate the actual test environments needed to run specific tests
C. to automatically select available machines during test execution
D. to automatically create unique test logs for each environment
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-050   certification 000-050   certification 000-050

NO.9 In the Requirements section of the test plan, what happens when you click on the green plus sign icon?
A. A new requirement is added to the test plan.
B. An existing requirement is added to the test plan.
C. A requirement is imported into the test plan.
D. test case is created from the requirement.
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-050   000-050   000-050

NO.10 Quality Objectives defined in the System Properties can be used in which sections of the test plan?
A. Business Objectives, Test Objectives, and Quality Objectives
B. Business Objectives, Test Environments, and Quality Objectives
C. Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Quality Objectives
D. Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Business Objectives
Answer: C

IBM   000-050   000-050   000-050

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Code d'Examen: 000-M196
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Social Software and Unified Communications Sales Mastery Test v1 )
Questions et réponses: 47 Q&As

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NO.1 What two features are common to all Same time offerings?
A. Video and presence awareness
B. Basic chat and presence awareness
C. Basic telephony and basic chat
D. Mobile capability and basic chat
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-M196   000-M196   certification 000-M196

NO.2 Which of the following is NOT true of the Files feature?
A. Files can be shared with colleagues
B. Access to files can be monitored
C. Files have to be word processing documents
D. File users can leave comments about the file
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-M196   certification 000-M196   certification 000-M196   000-M196 examen   000-M196

NO.3 Which new feature of the Profiles page shows status updates, enables people to go into a profile and
leave comments, and sends update notifications whenever something new is posted?
A. The Board
B. Tags
C. My Links
D. Network
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-M196   000-M196

NO.4 The Lotus Quickr task pane, which displays a hierarchical view of document libraries, is available in
which
connector?
A. Lotus Sametime
B. Lotus Symphony
C. Microsoft Office
D. Microsoft Outlook
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-M196   000-M196 examen

NO.5 What is the new feature in Lotus Connections 2.5 that enables users to keep the network of people they
are connected to up to date on their activities?
A. Profiles
B. Microblogs
C. Activities
D. Social bookmarks
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification 000-M196   000-M196 examen   000-M196

NO.6 Using collaboration software like Lotus Connections helps organizations work smarter by:
A. Improving information sharing
B. Improving third-party software features
C. Enhancing wikis
D. Developing Lotus Connections services
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-M196   certification 000-M196   000-M196   000-M196   000-M196

NO.7 Which social networking components can be added to a community?
A. Any three Lotus Connections widgets
B. Only the profiles associated with the community members
C. Only the files required by the community
D. Any file, activity, blog, wiki, feed, forum, or person associated with the community
Answer: D

IBM   000-M196 examen   000-M196 examen   000-M196   certification 000-M196

NO.8 Which software-as-service initiative has a click-to-cloud feature that enables users to have activities on
premises and in the cloud?
A. Lotus Sametime
B. Lotus Quickr
C. LotusLive
D. Lotus Notes
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-M196   000-M196 examen

NO.9 The new Lotus Connections wiki feature has:
A. A rich text editor that provides functions similar to a word processor ¯ s f unc ti on
B. A subscription service for members
C. A drawing function with basic shapes
D. A standard format that cannot be edited
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-M196   000-M196 examen   000-M196

NO.10 With whom has Lotus Connections partnered to provide capabilities in human resources management?
A. SAP
B. PeopleSoft
C. Monster.com
D. IBM Global Services and SuccessFactors
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-M196   000-M196   000-M196   certification 000-M196

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Code d'Examen: 000-979
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Technical Sales Skills - v1)
Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

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NO.1 The customer would like to know if SSDs would be helpful in their configuration. The business partner
has loaded the SSD analyze tool on the customer's system. Which of the following commands will identify
if SSDs would be beneficial to the customer?
A. ANZSSDDTA
B. ANZSSDINF
C. ANZSSDPRF
D. ANZSSDDSK
Answer: A

IBM   000-979   000-979   000-979   certification 000-979

NO.2 In a SAN environment, which disk protection method provides the most resiliency against failure?
A. RAID-0 (striping)
B. RAID-1 (mirroring)
C. RAID-5 (device parity)
D. RAID-10 (mirrored arrays)
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-979 examen   000-979   000-979

NO.3 A customer has a requirement to add 60 LUNs to their POWER6 570 server. The PCIe FC #5774
2-Port fibre channel adapter will support 64 LUNs but is not available for selection in the SPT.
What is the reason?
A. The FC #5774 has been withdrawn from marketing.
B. The FC #5774 is only supported on AIX partitions.
C. The FC #5774 is only available on the POWER7 servers.
D. The FC #5774 is not supported for the version of IBM i selected.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-979   certification 000-979

NO.4 A customer is planning to add a FC #5802 12X expansion drawer to a POWER6 4-core 520. The
drawer will contain four Solid State FC #1909 small-form-factor disk drives, and nine 69GB SAS
small-form-factor disk drives. What is the correct number of FC #5903 PCIe Dual - x4 3Gb SAS RAID
adapters that will be required?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

IBM   000-979 examen   certification 000-979   certification 000-979

NO.5 A customer running IBM i 6.1 on a system with a POWER6 processor wants a small guest IBM i partition
to verify upcoming changes to an application. Which of the following is required to create this partition?
A. Available disk space on hosting partition
B. Additional license keys for hosted partition
C. Licensed program 5761-SS1 option 68, IBM i Guest Enablement
D. An available port on the Host Ethernet Adapter for LAN console
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-979   certification 000-979   000-979

NO.6 For what situation must a customer be prepared when using encrypted ASPs?
A. Backups of the encrypted ASP take longer to process.
B. Backups require a tape device which supports encryption.
C. Tape media used for backups of encrypted data must be of a certain type.
D. Data stored in an encrypted ASP consume 10-20% more space than in a non-encrypted ASP.
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-979   certification 000-979   000-979 examen

NO.7 A customer with a non-partitioned Power Systems server plans to add three additional LPARs, all
running IBM i. No processor activations are needed for these new workloads. The only additional software
required is WebSphere Application Server (WAS), WebSphere Commerce suite, and Tivoli applications,
each running in their own partition. How many additional IBM i base license authorizations are needed for
the new partitions?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-979   000-979

NO.8 A client has expressed an interest in a new POWER7 system, and has also expressed concern about
application availability. They need zero data loss and an outage window of less than 15 minutes. Which of
the following will assure the most redundancy and quickest recovery time?
A. Configure an iASP and place 2 system units on the same I/O loop.
B. Configure a duplicate system in a second location with Cross-Site Mirroring between the systems.
C. Configure a duplicate system in a second location with asynchronous remote journaling between the
systems.
D. Configure SAN storage and place the flash copy disk in a second location connected to a second
system unit.
Answer: B

IBM   000-979   000-979

NO.9 What are the rules for compatibility with previous media as it applies to LTO?
A. Read current generation and previous two. Write current generation and previous one
B. Read current generation and all previous. Write current generation and all previous
C. Read current generation and previous three. Write current generation and previous two
D. Read current generation and previous three. Write current generation and previous three
Answer: A

IBM   000-979 examen   000-979 examen   certification 000-979   000-979

NO.10 A customer has a POWER5 550 with IBM i 6.1.1 with 2 loops. The first loop has a FC #5790 - PCI
Expansion Drawer, and the second loop has a FC #5802 PCIe 12X I/O Drawer. The customer wants to
upgrade to a Power 750. What are the migration issues?
A. IBM i must be upgraded to 7.1.0 first.
B. The FC #5790 - PCI Expansion drawer must be replaced.
C. A second processor card must be ordered to support an HSL loop.
D. The adapter interface on the #5790 must be upgraded to a FC #6432 12X to HSL adapter.
Answer: B

IBM   000-979   000-979

NO.11 What occurs when a cache battery on a disk IOA is marked as expired by the system?
A. Cache is disabled until the battery is replaced.
B. Cache is disabled until the disk adapter is IPLed.
C. Cache is disabled until a platform IPL is performed.
D. Cache is disabled until the expiration date is reset using SST.
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-979   000-979   000-979 examen

NO.12 When planning to encrypt an independent ASP (iASP), what must be considered?
A. IBM i 6.1 and POWER6 hardware is required.
B. Increased time to create the encrypted iASP.
C. Encrypted iASPs must be at least 1TB in size.
D. Only controllers which support compression can be used in an encrypted iASP.
Answer: B

IBM   000-979   000-979

NO.13 A client has sent a current system configuration, but the listing shows several items with a mark (?) next
to them. What does this indicate?
A. The hardware was not contacted on the last IPL of the system.
B. The hardware is not supported at the current level of IBM i.
C. The hardware was not detected at the time the rack configuration was printed.
D. The hardware listed does not have current microcode levels uploaded and installed.
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-979   000-979   000-979

NO.14 A customer has a 4-core Power 720 with 4 PCIe adapters in the CEC, and wants to add another adapter
to the system. Which of the following must be considered?
A. An expansion drawer must be added
B. It can be placed in an unused GX slot
C. A low-profile adapter must be selected
D. The 2-slot PCIe expansion riser must be ordered
Answer: C

IBM   000-979   000-979   certification 000-979   000-979   certification 000-979

NO.15 A customer enterprise consists of iSeries and System i servers in several countries communicating
over an Ethernet network. All system are running V5R4 or above. The customer has written hundreds of
applications that utilize SNA protocol for communicating between the systems. The primary ERP system,
a 9406-825, will be upgraded to a Power 750. What is the least disruptive method of ensuring that their
SNA communications will continue to function after upgrading to the POWER7?
A. Implement Enterprise Extenders on each system to allow SNA applications to run over the IP network.
B. Implement Clustering between all the networked systems to allow SNA applications to run between the
cluster nodes.
C. Migrate a 10/100 Mbps Ethernet adapter from the 9406-825 to the POWER7 system and utilize it for
SNA communications.
D. Create a virtual IP address and using Proxy ARP, reference a port on the POWER7 Integrated Virtual
Ethernet adapter (IVE). Use the Virtual
IP address for SNA communications.
Answer: A

IBM   000-979 examen   000-979   000-979   000-979

NO.16 A customer currently owns a Power Systems server with internal disk and no expansion units. Which
option for Independent ASPs are available for this customer?
A. Switchable Independent ASP
B. Non-switchable Independent ASP
C. Expanded *SYSBAS Independent ASP
D. Enhanced Protection Independent ASP
Answer: B

IBM   000-979   000-979

NO.17 A customer has a 2-core POWER6 520 with V5R4M5. An LTO-2 tape library is connected to a FC
#5712 Low Voltage SCSI IOA in a FC #0595 expansion unit. They want install a TS2900 LTO-4 Library.
What must be done as part of the installation?
A. Install FC #5912 SAS adapter
B. Convert the FC #0595 from HSL-2 to 12X
C. Upgrade the operating system to IBM i 6.1
D. Change the format of the LTO2 tapes to Ultrium 4
Answer: A

IBM   000-979   certification 000-979   000-979 examen

NO.18 An IBM i customer needs highly available disk storage on their new Power 750. The following
requirements have been determined:
Loop level redundant RAID-5
No disk in the CEC
Six 70GB Solid State Disks (SSDs)
Sixty six 284GB SAS disks (large form factor)
What design elements must be considered.?
A. SSD requires at least 1.5MB write cache
B. SSD and traditional disks must be in separate loops
C. SSD and traditional disks must be in different drawers
D. SSD and traditional disks must be on different controllers
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-979   000-979   000-979

NO.19 A customer has three machines they are consolidating: An 810 with 960 CPW, 16GB of memory, and
800GB of storage.
A POWER5 520 with 2400 CPW, 16GB of memory, and 1TB of storage.
A POWER5 520 with 2400 CPW, 16GB of memory, and 1.6TB of storage.
The customer has stated they need the same resource requirements on the new machine. Which of the
following would fit all three partitions at the lowest price?
A. A 2-core POWER6 520
B. A 4-core POWER6 520
C. A 4-core POWER7 750
D. A 4-core POWER7 720
Answer: D

IBM   000-979 examen   000-979

NO.20 A customer has developed a new Domino application and is considering deploying it on one or more
Power 720 systems which run IBM i and utilize external storage. How can the amount of memory and the
number of disk arms required to support the application be estimated?
A. Use the IBM Systems Workload Estimator to do a system sizing.
B. Collect Domino STATREP data and process it using DiskMagic(R).
C. Use Tivoli's TADDM (Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager) to size the system.
D. Import performance collection data into eConfig for correct disk arm and memory configuration.
Answer: D

IBM   000-979   000-979 examen   certification 000-979   000-979

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Code d'Examen: 000-M239
Nom d'Examen: IBM (WebSphere Sales Mastery Test for the Sales Professional v4)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

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NO.1 Customer Opportunity Workshops should
A.be used to salvage a sale that is collapsing
B.be used late in the sales cycle
C.be considered and included in every Win Plan
D.not require customer participation
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-M239   000-M239   000-M239   000-M239

NO.2 Which choiceis TRUE of WebSphere sMash?
A.use of BPM to model company carbon footprint
B.platform to reduce application server costs
C.open source version of WebSphere Application Server (WAS)
D.Application Server & Development Platform for lightweight Java/PHP applications
Answer: D

IBM   000-M239   000-M239   000-M239   000-M239   000-M239 examen

NO.3 Which of the items below is NOT an attribute of a Use Case?
A.repeatable
B.solutions oriented
C.complex
D.industry focused
Answer: B

IBM   000-M239   000-M239   000-M239 examen

NO.4 What value is provided by WebSphere service visibility and governance capabilities?
A.Ensures services can be found and right services are accessed.
B.Reduces costs and duplication by leveraging existing assets.
C.Meets audit requirements by tracking services and transactions.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-M239   000-M239 examen   000-M239

NO.5 Which statement below accurately tefleds the concept of Business Process Management (BPM)?
A.BPM is a discipline designing and managing systems in a thoughtful, systematic and flexible way that
takes the whole, end-to-end business process into account
B.The use ofsoftware, such as orchestration engines and workflow tools, at run-time, to direct the
sequence of execution of software components and human activity steps in a process
C.Using software to control the conditional execution of activities based on rules and potaes
D.all of the above
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-M239 examen   000-M239   certification 000-M239   certification 000-M239   000-M239

NO.6 It s very likely that our clients have Tomcat applications along with their Application Server
applications.What is the IBM WebSphere strategy for replacement of Tomcat installations?
A.Sellclients about WebSphere Application Servers (WAS) new strategy of Feature Packs (FEPs)
B.Sell clients WebSphere Express & WEB 2 0 Feature Pack
C.Sell clients support (or WebSphere Community Edition (WAS CE)
D.Sell WebSphere Extended Deployment (WXD) to add Quality ofService(QoS) to TomCat Applications
Answer: B

IBM   000-M239 examen   000-M239   000-M239 examen   000-M239

NO.7 How does JBoss define a "socket".?
A.a CPU
B.the number of processor cores
C.Intel only chips
D.none of the above
Answer: A

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NO.8 WebSphere Enterprise Service Bus (WESB) is central to the SOA evolution.Which of the following
statements describe value delivered by WESB?
A.Integrates seamlessly with the WebSphere platform
B.Delivers business-critical qualities of service.
C.Is an integrated solution for service mediation and hosting
D.All of the above
Answer: A

IBM   000-M239   000-M239 examen   000-M239   certification 000-M239

NO.9 What is an ideal next step after the Business Process Management (BPM) whiteboarding exercise?
A.Provide the client with Industry Use Cases.
B.Ask the client for the order of the products you discussed during whiteboarding exercise.
C.Gain agreement to move forward with a Business Value Assessment (BVA) Workshop.
D.Schedule a second whiteboarding session with the IT staff.
Answer: C

IBM   000-M239   000-M239

NO.10 Which of the following statements describe ways to engage customers in business driven BPM
conversations?
A.Align the business agility story to industry imperatives
B.Be focused on IBM assets rather than customer outcomes
C.Provide a way of linking a business view and an IT view of the solution
D.AandC
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-532
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Tivoli Storage Manager v6.2 Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 143 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement accurately reflects what problem might occur if migration is allowed to run during
normal client backups?
A. It does not matter as client backups happen independently of migration to their respective storage
pools.
B. If migration is allowed to run during normal client backups, too much CPU utilization can result in a
server crash.
C. If migration happens in an ad hoc manner, it will not be able to honor the MIGDELAY setting for the
cached files in the disk pool.
D. Migration of the primary storage pools during client backup will slow down the client backup sessions
and can impact the scheduling of other server processes.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the function of client side data deduplication in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. It is used on the Backup-Archive client to remove redundant data on the local disk before data is
transferred to the TSM server.
B. It is used on the TSM server to remove redundant data from the backup and archive clients during
backup and archive processing.
C. It is used on the Backup-Archive client to remove redundant data during backup and archive
processing before the data is transferred to the TSM sever.
D. It is used on the Backup-Archive client to remove redundant data during backup and archive
processing, and then it encrypts or compresses the data before it is transferred to the TSM sever.
Answer: C

IBM   000-532 examen   000-532   000-532

NO.3 A Linux server is running out of disk space. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product may be
used to free up disk space while keeping the files available?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for ERP
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager HSM for Windows
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for System Backup and Recovery
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-532   certification 000-532

NO.4 What can be configured on a backup copy group?
A. The number of days to keep an archive copy.
B. The collocation group for the nodes in the copy group's domain.
C. A group of nodes that are acted upon as if they were a single entity.
D. The backup versions to retain for files that have been deleted from the client.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-532   000-532   000-532 examen

NO.5 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product provides LAN-free data movement for Windows
servers running IBM Lotus Notes?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Lotus Notes
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager LAN-free Agent
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager LAN-free for Intel Platforms
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-532 examen   000-532   000-532   certification 000-532   000-532

NO.6 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product is required to backup IBM Lotus Notes servers?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Databases
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Lotus Notes
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-532   certification 000-532

NO.7 Which statement is true about a policy set?
A. It specifies the destination of active-data pools.
B. There can be only one active policy set per domain.
C. There can only be one default policy set per domain.
D. It contains the default retention of backups when a management class is deleted.
Answer: B

IBM   000-532   000-532   000-532   000-532

NO.8 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product is required to provide integration for backups of SAP
database servers?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Databases
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for System Backup and Recovery
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Enterprise Resource Planning
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-532   certification 000-532   000-532

NO.9 Client jobs are unnecessarily tying up the resources on the server and they either overlap or do not
complete properly in time. What is an area to review to improve performance?
A. Run reclamation on the storage pool.
B. Investigate the use of server free backup.
C. Investigate the timing and sequencing of the client jobs.
D. Upgrade from IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Basic Edition to the Extended Edition.
Answer: C

IBM   000-532   000-532   000-532 examen   000-532 examen

NO.10 Which policy components can be contained within a domain?
A. backup sets and device classes
B. archive copy groups and node groups
C. collocation groups and management classes
D. management classes and backup copy groups
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-532   000-532   000-532 examen

NO.11 Which statement accurately reflects why reclamation should be controlled using schedules?
A. Reclamation prevents recalling offsite copy pool tapes in an uncontrolled manner.
B. Unscheduled reclamation can cause bottleneck(s) on the disk based storage pool(s).
C. Controlling reclamation is desirable because it demands heavy use of the tape drives.
D. Reclamation in an unscheduled fashion can cause collocated pools to become non-collocated.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the appropriate time to backup the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database in daily processing?
A. after client backups in the evening and before backing up all storage pools
B. after sending disaster recovery tapes offsite, but before backing up all storage pools
C. after client backups and backing up all storage pools, but before sending disaster recovery tapes
offsite
D. before performing client backup and backing up all storage pools and sending the disaster recovery
tapes offsite
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-532   000-532   000-532 examen   certification 000-532

NO.13 A user archived a file that was being modified by an application at the moment of the archive. When
the file is retrieved, the file is not usable. Which parameter should be changed in the archive copy group?
A. Mode
B. Frequency
C. Destination
D. Serialization
Answer: D

IBM   000-532 examen   000-532   000-532   000-532

NO.14 Which statement is true about server side data deduplication in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. It is performed by the TSM server on a file pool.
B. It is performed by the TSM server and requires that all clients participate in the data deduplication
function.
C. It is performed by the TSM server before the data is transferred over the network from the
Backup-Archive client to a file pool.
D. It is performed by the TSM server when data is written to sequential tape media to reduce the required
number of tape cartridges.
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-532   000-532 examen

NO.15 When does a version of a file become inactive?
A. When a client stores a more recent archive version.
B. When the client stores a more recent backup version.
C. When a client stores a backup version that exceeds the value specified in the frequency parameter.
D. When a client stops backup activity for a period longer than the value specified in the RETExtra
parameter.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-532 examen   000-532

NO.16 Which statements accurately reflect the purpose of creating a daily maintenance schedule in IBM
Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. To ensure that storage pools are free of viruses.
B. Provide for a mechanism to periodically check the integrity of data received using cyclic redundancy
code.
C. Facilitate an automated daily mechanism to apply regular maintenance patches to the TSM server and
relieve the TSM administrator of manual labor.
D. Facilitate an automated daily mechanism to run an orderly maintenance script to do storage pool
backups, database backup, data migration, and inventory expiration.
Answer: D

IBM   000-532   000-532   000-532 examen

NO.17 What is the best approach to implement daily IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) processing?
A. Check if the current process is to implement a complete manual control as load is unpredictable.
B. Check if the Disaster Recovery Manager is installed; it will automatically create the necessary
schedules.
C. Check if there is a server maintenance script scheduled which guarantees that each command inside it
completes before another one starts.
D. The TSM default administration schedules provided at installation time are in line with best practices
recommendations, there is no additional effort required.
Answer: C

IBM   000-532   000-532 examen   000-532 examen

NO.18 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product is required to provide integration for Oracle?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Oracle
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Databases
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-532   000-532   000-532   000-532

NO.19 Which scenario would benefit from using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) server side data
deduplication?
A. The customer wants to reduce the required amount of disk space for the TSM storage pools.
B. The customer wants to reduce the required number of tape cartridges in the tape storage pools.
C. Backup windows are not currently being met; data deduplication reduces the amount of data being
sent to the TSM sever.
D. When the network is reaching its capacity limit, data deduplication reduces the amount of data being
sent over the network.
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-532   000-532   000-532 examen

NO.20 A Windows server is running out of disk space. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product can
be used to free up disk space while keeping the files available?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for ERP
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager HSM for Windows
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for System Backup and Recovery
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-555
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Informix Dynamic Server 11.50 Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 When you execute an INSERT statement, the database server will insert a NULL value into any
column that meets which two conditions? (Choose two.)
A. You provide no value for a specific column.
B. Where a zero is specified in the VALUES clause of a serial column.
C. Where you specify the NULL keyword in the VALUES clause for a specific column.
D. Columns that are used in indexes.
Answer: A,C

IBM   000-555 examen   000-555

NO.2 You can use a "role" to enforce which two kinds of security or access control in an instance and/or its
data? (Choose two.)
A. Access to data within a table at a row and column level.
B. Access to data based on the types of tasks to be performed.
C. Control which user(s) may or may not create databases.
D. Control which user(s) may or may not execute administrative functions.
Answer: B,D

IBM   000-555 examen   000-555   000-555   000-555

NO.3 Which two statements are correct about Remote Standalone (RS) secondary instances? (Choose
two.)
A. RS secondary instances can be dynamically added and removed.
B. RS secondary instances support automatic index repair.
C. RS secondary instances can become a HDR secondary.
D. RS secondary instancesrequires a HDR secondary to be present in order to function.
Answer: A,C

IBM   000-555   000-555   000-555

NO.4 In a SELECT statement, the clauses must appear in which order?
A. Projection, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, HAVING, INTO TEMP
B. Projection, FROM, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, INTO TEMP
C. Projection, FROM, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING, ORDER BY, INTO TEMP
D. Projection, FROM, INTO TEMP, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-555   000-555 examen

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col1 of the rows having col1=20 that were updated to have col1 = 25 by client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
Answer: B

IBM   000-555   000-555   000-555 examen

NO.6 Which two instance types are disaster recovery oriented rather than high availability oriented?
(Choose two.)
A. an Enterprise Replication instance
B. a RS Secondary instance
C. a SD Secondary instance
D. a Continuous Log Restore instance
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 In which three places may a function be used in a SELECT statement? (Choose three.)
A. in the select (or projection) list
B. in a group by clause
C. in a sub query
D. in a predicate
E. in a cube definition
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Which keyword is used to determine whether a comparison is true for every value returned from a sub
query?
A. NOT
B. ALL
C. SOME
D. EVERY
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-555   000-555   certification 000-555

NO.9 Which statement will change the column address1 to a null value?
A. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
B. UPDATE customer SET address1 = '123 New Street', SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num =
134;
C. UPDATE customer SET address1 = "" WHERE customer_num = 134;
D. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null, SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-555   000-555   000-555   000-555

NO.10 What are two ways to create table t1 with row level locking? (Choose two.)
A. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) locking row".
B. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock mode row".
C. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock level row".
D. Set DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW in ONCONFIG before executing "create tablet1(c1 int)".
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about the COMMIT WORK statement? (Choose two.)
A. The keyword WORK is optional.
B. The COMMIT WORK statement releases all row locks but not table locks.
C. All of the successful modifications that the transaction makes are saved to disk when you issue a
COMMIT WORK statement.
D. A new transaction automatically starts after each COMMIT WORK or ROLLBACK WORK statement in
anonlogged database.
Answer: A,C

IBM   000-555 examen   000-555   000-555   000-555 examen

NO.12 Enterprise Replication (ER) requires which data object to exist in all tables participating in replication?
A. a virtual column
B. a unique index
C. a unique constraint
D. a primary key
Answer: D

IBM   000-555   000-555 examen   000-555 examen

NO.13 User A creates a user defined routine. Which privilege must be granted to other users before they can
use user A's UDR?
A. select on the tables used in the procedure
B. execute on the procedure
C. DBA on the database
D. resource on the database
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-555   certification 000-555   000-555 examen   000-555 examen

NO.14 Which two steps are necessary to enable encryption with the Communication Support Modules?
(Choose two.)
A. Add an entry to the concsm.cfg file.
B. Add an entry to the options column of thesqlhosts file or registry.
C. Set the CSMENConconfig variable.
D. Set the encryption flag in theencrypt_db table in the sysadm database.
Answer: A,B

IBM   certification 000-555   000-555   000-555

NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col2 of the rows having col1=20.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-555   000-555

NO.16 What are three system level databases? (Choose three.)
A. sysmaster
B. sysadmin
C. sysmonitor
D. sysutils
E. sysperf
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.17 Which three statements will delete all rows from table_name? (Choose three.)
A. DELETE FROMtable_name ;
B. DELETEtable_name ;
C. DELETE * FROMtable_name ;
D. TRUNCATE TABLEtable_name ;
E. DELETE ALL FROMtable_name;
Answer: A,B,D

IBM   certification 000-555   000-555 examen   000-555

NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the select statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will select the rows that had col1=20 and were updated to have col1=25 by Client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without selecting any rows.
Answer: A

IBM   000-555   000-555   000-555 examen   000-555

NO.19 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to have the highest level of contention within transactions operating on the table
B. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
C. to have increased concurrency
D. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
Answer: C

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