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Code d'Examen: SABE501V3.0
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 - Update.)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D

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NO.2 Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A

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NO.3 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D

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NO.6 In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server
(CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent
(SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
Answer:A C

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NO.7 Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document?
(Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D

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NO.8 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on
Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D

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NO.9 What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central
Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File
Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless
otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver
C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
Answer:A B D

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NO.12 You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system
integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
Answer:A

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NO.13 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
Answer:B

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NO.14 A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What
folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the
Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
Answer:A

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NO.15 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer:C

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NO.16 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D

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NO.17 What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication,
content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
Answer:D

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NO.18 Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache
Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server
(CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence
application
Answer:C

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NO.19 How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the
Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go
to the Configuration tab.
Answer:D

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NO.20 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: DMDI301
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (BUSINESS OBJECTS Data Integrator XI – Level Two)
Questions et réponses: 33 Q&As

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NO.1 You create a real-time job that processes data from an external application. Which two mechanisms
enable the external application to send/receive messages to the real-time job? (Choose two).
A. Adapter instance
B. File on shared server
C. E-mail
D. Web service call
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Data integrator conations "Execute only once" logic on which two objects ?(Choose two)
A. Conditionals
B. Data flows
C. Scripts
D. Work flows
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Your data flow loads the contents of "order_details "and" order_headers "into one XML file that contains
a node <HEADER> and a child mode <DETAIL>.
How should you populate the structure in your Query.?
A. In the HEADER schema use the order headers for from and leave where empty in the detail schema
use the order details for From and Where clause put order_header_id =order_details order_id.
B. In the HEADER schema use the order_headers for from and put order_header.order_id = order
details.order_id in where clause. In the detail schema use the order_details for from andleave where
empty.
C. In the header schema use the order_header for from and leave where empty in the detail schema use
the order_header for from and put order_header order_id = order_details order_id in where clause.
D. In the header schema use the order_headers for from, and in where clause put order_header order_id
= order details order_id in the detail schema use the order_header, order_details for from and leave
where empty.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are working in a multi-user central repository based environment. You select "Rename owner" on
an object which is not checked out.
The object has one or more dependent objects in the local repository. What is the outcome?
A. Data integrator displays a second window listing the dependent objects. when you click "continue" the
object owner is renamed and all of the dependent objects are modified.
B. Data Integrator renames the indiviclual object owner.
C. Data Integrator displays the "This object is checked out from central repository "X". Please select Tools
Central Repository. to activate that repository before renaming.Message.
D. Data Integrator renames the owner of all 0bjects within the selected data store.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You create a data flow that contains an XML file as the output. The XML file structure contains an
element that is used to group other element.
This element occurs once in the output XML file. Which method can you use to ensure that this element is
populated correctly?
A. Enter the value"1" in the single element schema mapping.
B. Leave the form clause of the single element schema empty.
C. Place the source table that contains your source rows into the form clause of the single element
schema.
D. Use a row_Generation transform and select one row then map the transform into the from clause of the
single element schema.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 050-V66-SERCMS02
Nom d'Examen: RSA (RSA Certificate Management Solution 6.6 CSE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 Manually generated CRLs can be configured to include the next update in relative or absolute time
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 RSA Certificate Manager supports enrollment using which protocols? (Choose three)
A. CMP
B. SCEP
C. OCSP
D. DHCP
E. HTTPS
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 When retrieving your certificate, you must ensure that
A. you use the same browser as when enrolled
B. the browser can support certificate description retrieval
C. the Administrator has configured you to perform IPSec transactions
D. you have a valid user account in the same domain as RSA Certificate Manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where can the operation logs used for troubleshooting be found for RSA Certificate Manager and RSA
Registration Manager?
A. /<installed_directory>/logs
B. /<installed_directory>/WebServer/logs
C. /<installed_directory>/LogServer/operations/logs
D. /<installed_directory>/WebServer/operations/logs
Answer: B

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NO.5 During installation of the RSA Certificate Manager and the RSA Registration Managter, it is possible to
change the default port configurations
A. True
B. False
Answer : A

NO.6 When a CA has been revoked, the browser will always show that certificates issued by that CA are
invalid
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the standard format for transporting certificates and private keys, as used with export and
import functions?
A. PKCS #7
B. MS CAPI
C. PKCS #11
D. PKCS #12
Answer: D

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NO.8 If an organization is about to begin deployment of an RSA Certificate manager PKI, what should the
organization do? (Choose two)
A. Smart card enable users browsers
B. Install a fiber Ethernet backbone to handle Web traffic
C. Locate a secure physical location for their RSA Certificate Manager hardware
D. Make sure all e-mail addresses are less than 25 characters for S/MIME
E. Secure the Operating System (OS) based on the OS vendor ¯ s r eco mm enda ti ons
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 An application may deem a certificate invalid if (Choose three)
A. the certificate has expired
B. the certificate ¯ s i ssue r i s no t tr us t ed
C. a certificate attribute name has been misspelled
D. the certificate is missing a required extension
E. the application ¯ s ad m i n i s tr a t o r has b l ocked t he pub li c key
F. the organization attribute in the certificate ¯ s DN i s no t kno w n t o t he app li ca ti o ¡ ¯s a d m inis t rato
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 What does the X.509 standard apply to.?
A. contents of a digital certificate
B. strength of S/MIME encryption
C. protocol for connecting through a VPN
D. methods for secure public/private key storage
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 050-V71-CASECURID02
Nom d'Examen: RSA (RSA SecurID Certified Administrator 7.1 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 If a Super Admin administrator can view a certain set of user records in the Authentication Manager
database but a Help Desk administrator can not,
A. the Help Desk administrator should be assigned a Super Admin role.
B. the Super Admin administrator's privileges should be set to 'delegatable'.
C. the Help Desk administrator scope may not allow viewing of these users.
D. this would be considered a normal difference between these two types of administrators.
Answer: C

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NO.2 RSA Authentication audit log records
A. can be archived using a scheduled job.
B. are only accessible by the Super Admin administrator.
C. are always deleted from the database when they are archived.
D. can be digitally signed by the administrator for archival storage protection.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When creating and running RSA Authentication Manager version 7.1 reports, the administrator has the
option of (Choose two)
A. allowing the report to run with the scope of the administrator who is running the report.
B. defining report criteria by writing an SQL query to extract data directly from the database.
C. customizing a report template by adding and removing columns and applying data filters.
D. creating and running reports from a Replica database server if the Primary server is down.
E. previewing the report output before the report is run to make sure the desired data is included.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Three consecutive log entries for one user contain the message "Authentication Method Failed", what
administrative action would NOT be appropriate?
A. resynchronize the token
B. set the user's PIN to Next Tokencode
C. assign a temporary Fixed Passcode for troubleshooting
D. check the system time of the RSA Authentication Manager host
Answer: B

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NO.5 Authenticators should NOT be shared by multiple users because of
A. license concerns.
B. hostname conflicts.
C. database restrictions.
D. repudiation concerns.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A user reports a problem while trying to authenticate. The administrator checks recent activities and
sees that the last message associated with this user is "New Pin Cancelled." What is the most likely
cause?
A. The user is not in New PIN mode.
B. The user is not in the server database.
C. The user did not complete the New PIN operation successfully.
D. The user is not authorized to authenticate through this Authentication Agent.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An RSA Authentication Manager administrator would edit an Identity Attribute parameter
A. to ignore users with duplicate user names.
B. to store additional user information in a user record.
C. to specify an LDAP Bind DN and Bind DN password.
D. when the LDAP server is not in the same domain as the RSA Authentication Manager server.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A user is trying to authenticate from their workstation to the RSA Authentication Manager but receives
an "Access Denied" message. The Server's log is showing the following error message: "Node secret
mismatch". What is a likely cause?
A. The sdconf.rec is missing from the Agent machine.
B. The user is not allowed to authenticate on that Agent.
C. The Agent has not been added into the Server database.
D. The secret key used to encrypt Agent communication has been deleted.
Answer: D

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NO.9 An RSA SecurID tokencode is unique for each successful authentication because
A. a token periodically calculates a new code
B. the user continuously changes their secret PIN
C. the Node Secret is updated after each authentication
D. the Server's clock is set to Universal Coordinated Time (UTC)
Answer: A

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NO.10 A feature of the RADIUS protocol is
A. the ability to track a user's login and logout time (RADIUS accounting).
B. the computer time setting can be checked remotely (remote time service).
C. a user's default login name becomes their password (RADIUS login synchronization).
D. the user Profile and Attribute Value Pair matches their tokencode (RADIUS token matching).
Answer: A

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NO.11 RSA SecurID tokens are initially supplied with matching token records. After tokens are assigned,
deployed and used by end-users, what information might be overwritten if the original token records are
re-imported into the RSA Authentication Manager database.? (Choose two)
A. user assignment
B. tokencode values
C. Authentication Agent usage
D. token time offset information
E. system PIN parameter settings
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 If a group has been defined with access times of 9 AM to 5 PM, Monday through Friday. When can a
member of that group log in?
A. at any time but must renew their login at 9 AM each day
B. during the specified time frame, but must log out by 5 PM
C. during that time frame and can remain logged in indefinitely
D. during that time frame but is automatically logged out at 5 PM
Answer: C

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NO.13 If the RSA Authentication Manager places a token into Next Tokencode Mode, and the user waits for
three minutes (three tokencode increments) to enter his/her next tokencode, what will be the expected
result?
A. The Server will not accept the value because it is not sequential.
B. The authentication will be successful even though the input was delayed.
C. The Server will ask for a third tokencode, so that it has two sequential codes.
D. The Server will assume that the token has been stolen, and disable the token.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The RSA Authentication Manager has settings where (by default) three incorrect PASSCODES will
invoke Next Tokencode Mode. Where is this configuration setting located?
A. Within the Setup menu.
B. Within the Identity menu.
C. Within the Polices menu.
D. Within the RADIUS menu.
Answer: C

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NO.15 How many RSA Authentication Manager servers can be in a single Instance (maximum) under an
Enterprise license?
A. 1 database server and a single Server Node
B. 1 Primary server and up to 3 Replica servers
C. 1 database server and up to 4 Server Nodes
D. 1 Primary server and up to 15 Replica servers
Answer: C

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NO.16 An RSA Authentication Manager is licensed for 500 users. The license must be upgraded if you want
to
A. assign more than 500 tokens to individual users.
B. import more than 500 token records into the database.
C. import more than 500 users from an LDAP directory source.
D. allow cross-realm authentication for more than 500 remote users.
Answer: A

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NO.17 When assigning a user a Temporary Fixed Tokencode to replace a lost token, what is the default value
for the expiration period of that Tokencode?
A. 24 hours
B. 5 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are assisting a user who is working offline on a Microsoft Windows Authentication Agent. If you
provide this user with an Offline Emergency Passcode, you must tell the user
A. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID token passcode without using a PIN.
B. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but continue to use the existing PIN.
C. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but you will also issue a temporary
replacement PIN.
D. to first enter their Windows password and, when prompted for the Emergency Access Code, enter the
code that you provide.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Operation between Windows, Linux and UNIX platforms is supported by RSA Authentication Manager
for which types of communications? (Choose two)
A. Agent to Server
B. Database Replication
C. Primary to Replica Server
D. Trusted Realm authentication
E. Database server to Server Node
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 If multiple users request On-demand Tokencodes but are not receiving them, you would want to
confirm that
A. the users are not in New PIN mode.
B. SMS or SMTP services are configured correctly.
C. the tokens assigned to the users have not expired.
D. the tokens assigned to the users have been resynchronized.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: CISM
Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Certified Information Security Manager)
Questions et réponses: 633 Q&As

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NO.1 What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security
solution?
A. Risk assessment report
B. Technical evaluation report
C. Business case
D. Budgetary requirements
Answer: C

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NO.2 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to
ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Answer: C

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NO.4 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an
international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Follow local regulations only
C. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
D. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?
A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests
Answer: B

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NO.6 Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through
presentations that:
A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
Answer: C

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NO.8 Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of
operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Answer: B

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NO.10 From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined
roles and responsibilities?
A. Enhanced policy compliance
B. Improved procedure flows
C. Segregation of duties
D. Better accountability
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information
classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
Answer: A

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NO.12 Based on the information provided, which of the following situations presents the GREATEST
information security risk for an organization with multiple, but small, domestic processing locations?
A. Systems operation procedures are not enforced
B. Change management procedures are poor
C. Systems development is outsourced
D. Systems capacity management is not performed
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Internal address translation
C. Prospective employee background checks
D. Employee awareness certification program
Answer: C

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NO.14 An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an
information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?
A. Security metrics reports
B. Risk assessment reports
C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
D. Return on security investment report
Answer: B

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NO.15 The PRIMARY goal in developing an information security strategy is to:
A. establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
B. educate business process owners regarding their duties.
C. ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
D. support the business objectives of the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.17 Risk management programs are designed to reduce risk to:
A. a level that is too small to be measurable.
B. the point at which the benefit exceeds the expense.
C. a level that the organization is willing to accept.
D. a rate of return that equals the current cost of capital.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Identification and prioritization of business risk enables project managers to:
A. establish implementation milestones.
B. reduce the overall amount of slack time.
C. address areas with most significance.
D. accelerate completion of critical paths.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following factors is a primary driver for information security governance that does not
require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
C. Board and senior management
D. Information security steering group
Answer: C

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NO.21 Acceptable risk is achieved when:
A. residual risk is minimized.
B. transferred risk is minimized.
C. control risk is minimized.
D. inherent risk is minimized.
Answer: A

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NO.22 An information security manager at a global organization that is subject to regulation by multiple
governmental jurisdictions with differing requirements should:
A. bring all locations into conformity with the aggregate requirements of all governmental jurisdictions.
B. establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required.
C. bring all locations into conformity with a generally accepted set of industry best practices.
D. establish a baseline standard incorporating those requirements that all jurisdictions have in common.
Answer: B

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NO.23 A risk assessment should be conducted:
A. once a year for each business process andsubprocess.
B. every three-to-six months for critical business processes.
C. by external parties to maintain objectivity.
D. annually or whenever there is a significant change.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
Answer: D

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NO.25 The MOST important component of a privacy policy is:
A. notifications
B. warranties
C. liabilities
D. geographic coverage
Answer: A

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NO.26 Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks
B. evaluations in trade publications
C. use of new and emerging technologies
D. benefits in comparison to their costs
Answer: A

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NO.27 It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager's role in a multidisciplinary
team that will address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management
decision making?
A. Control risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Risk exposure
D. Residual risk
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM   CISM

NO.30 In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business
processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Answer: B

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Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 Orion NPM is using SNMP to poll a routerand track interface traffic rates. The data are collected every
5 minutes, and the most recent values collected for a specific interfaceare 1,000,000 and 2,000,000
octets.
What is the approximate average rate of traffic for this interface?
A.1 Kbps
B.3 Kbps
C.16 Kbps
D.26 Kbps
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router
interface?
A.WMI
B.Syslog
C.IP service level agreement (SLA)
D.sFlow
Answer:D

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NO.3 Due to a server crash, you had to moveOrion to a new server with a new IP address.
Which two changes should you make to ensure thatOrion functions properly from the new server and IP
address? (Choose two.)
A.update the access control lists (ACLs) thatrestrict management protocols
B.change the IP address specified in the snmpd.conf file on the Orion server
C.update the source address for NetFlow packets exported to Orion
D.notify ARIN of the Orion server's new IP address
E.update the destination IP address for Syslog and SNMP traps on your managed devices
Answer:AE

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NO.4 Which two reporting requirements should you consider when specifying data roll-up settings for a
network management system (NMS)? (Choose two.)
A.dataencryption
B.data format
C.data granularity
D.monitoring coverage
E.data retention
Answer:CE

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NO.5 Orion NPM is monitoring the performance of DS-3 utilizing standard MIBs in the ifTable. Occasionally,
the reported traffic rates for this interface spike well above45 Mbps.
What is the most likely cause?
A.heavy network traffic
B.carrier misconfiguration
C.counter rollovers
D.database issues
Answer:C

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NO.6 You have recently implemented a VoIP infrastructure within the company network. You are receiving
trouble tickets indicating calls are dropping between their New York and San Francisco offices.
Which two IP service level agreement (SLA) measurements should you use to identify the cause of the
issue?
A.latency
B.SIP
C.NetFlow
D.available bandwidth
E.jitter
Answer:AE

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NO.7 You are monitoring your Internet connection, and your ISP has guaranteed512 Kbps. Historical data
shows that your connection speedholds at 256 Kbps for long periods of time, but never exceeds this
speed.
What does this indicate?
A.The ISP has misconfigured the link.
B.The WAN router is misconfigured.
C.The NAT table is overloaded.
D.QoS is dropping low priority traffic.
Answer:A

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NO.8 A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensureit will use message
integrity.
Which version of SNMP should they use?
A.SNMPv1
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv3
D.SNMPv4
Answer:C

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NO.9 How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device's statistics that are notincludedin
the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A.by manually associatingthe device'sOID to Orion
B.by keeping a copy of the device's MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C.by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D.bymanually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E.bymanually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A.jitter
B.shaping
C.marking
D.queuing
E.latency
Answer:AE

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NO.11 When using a network management system (NMS) to monitor network interfaces on a router, you
notice that statistics are wrong after an interface card is physically removed from the device.
What has most likely caused this problem?
A.interface re-indexing
B.device configuration
C.counter rollovers
D.access lists
Answer:A

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NO.12 The data center teamrequires that they be alerted if any of the servers in a remote site go
down.However, they do NOT want to receive alerts when the remote site connection goes down.
Which two configuration steps should you take within your network management system (NMS) to meet
these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.set up alerts on server status
B.set up alerts on the remote connection status
C.set each of the servers as dependencies for each other
D.set up the remote connection as a dependency for each of the servers
E.set up alerts on the remote router status
Answer:AD

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NO.13 Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collectutilization
statistics?
A.ICMP
B.SNMP
C.SMTP
D.WMI
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which two management protocols should you use to measure the effectiveness of your QoS
implementation? (Choose two.)
A.Syslog
B.SNMP
C.NetFlow
D.WMI
E.SSHv2
Answer:BC

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NO.15 Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM serversmonitoring multiplelocationsfrom a single site.
This is producing inaccurate dataandhigh WAN bandwidth utilization.
Whatare the twomost efficientways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A.deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B.deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C.deploy an additional Orion Poller
D.deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E.deploy an Orion Hot Standby
Answer:AB

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NO.16 A network engineer notices the Syslog server's database is growingsignificantly in sizedue to thelarge
number of devices sending Syslog messages.
What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A.configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog
C.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D.configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
Answer:A

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NO.17 What is an advantage of using SNMPv2c over using SNMPv1?
A.username parameter
B.get bulk command
C.get next command
D.32 bit counters
E.authentication and encryption
Answer:B

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NO.18 Users are complaining that a network connection is slow.
How should SNMP be used to verify performance of the interface?
A.verify bandwidth usage via ifInOctets
B.verify status via the ifTable
C.verify that SNMP agent is responding
D.verify the performance via ifSpeed
Answer:A

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NO.19 Whichtwo variables are used in the calculation of Percent Utilization? (Choose two.)
A.configured bandwidth
B.packets per second
C.buffer overruns
D.interface discards
E.bits per second
Answer:AE

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NO.20 Which network protocols are used by SolarWinds products during network discoveries?
A.ICMP and SMTP
B.DHCP and TFTP
C.PPTP and IMAP
D.ICMP and SNMP
Answer:D

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Code d'Examen: PMI-SP
Nom d'Examen: PMI (PMI Scheduling Professional)
Questions et réponses: 326 Q&As

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NO.1 Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project.
There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule.
Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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NO.2 Ben is the project manager for his organization. His project has 26 stakeholders this week and will
have five additional stakeholders next week. How many more communication channels will Ben's project
have next week?
A. 140
B. 10
C. 325
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your project has a BAC of $750,000 and is 75 percent complete. According to your plan, however, your
project should actually be 80 percent complete. You have spent $575,000 of your project budget to reach
this point and you are worried about the project not being able to complete based on your current project
budget. What is the to-complete performance index for this project?
A. 0.98
B. -$16,677
C. 1.07
D. 0.94
Answer: C

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NO.4 John works as a project manager of the NHQ Project. He has created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
Based on the project network diagram, how much float is available for Activity H if Activity B is delayed by
four days and Activity E is delayed by two days?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are the project manager for your organization. You need the oak cabinets for your project
delivered by December 1 in order to install the floors around the oak cabinets by December 15.
Your company's procurement office generally takes 45 days to complete procurement orders. Based on
this information, how should you schedule the lead time for the cabinet delivery?
A. Cabinet procurement December 1, plus 45 days lead time
B. Cabinet procurement November 15
C. Cabinet procurement December 1, minus 45 dayslead time
D. Cabinet procurement December 15 minus 45 dayslead time
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies the successor activities and the
predecessor activities to assist the project manager in sequencing the project work?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method
B. Schedule network template
C. Dependency determination
D. Activity on the Node
Answer: A

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NO.7 Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the
stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders
process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: B

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NO.8 Mark is the project manager of the GHQ Project. He is happily reporting that his project has a schedule
performance index of 2.12. Management, however, does not think this is good news.
What is the most likely reason why management does not like an SPI of 2.12?
A. It is not good news because a larger number means the schedule duration estimates were likely to be
wrong to begin with.
B. They likely do not understand the SPI formula.
C. It is not good news, as the number should be closer to 100 than 0.
D. It is good news, but Mark may have large cost variances to achieve this value.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are the project manager for your company. You are working with the activities defined in the figure
below.
What will happen to your project if Activity F takes five additional days to complete than what was
expected?
A. Your project's critical path will shift to ACFI.
B. Your project will be late by five days.
C. Your project can still complete on time as float is available onActivity I.
D. Your project will now have two critical paths.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates
for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for
this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are the project manager of the GHY Project. Management wants you to create a process
improvement plan for your project. Your project will be studied by management and will become a
standard for all future organizational projects based on your project's performance, approach, and
implementation of project processes. All of the following should be included in your project's process
improvement plan except for which one?
A. Process boundaries
B. Process configuration
C. Targets for improved performance
D. Identification of project risks
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your project team is executing the project plan and things are going well. Your team has reached
its first milestone and is now in the second phase of the project. The project stakeholders have requested
that you find a method to reduce the duration of the project. They will reward you and your project team
with a 25 percent bonus of the project costs if you can finish the project thirty days earlier than what was
already planned. The stakeholders, however, will not approve any additional labor costs as part of the
agreement. Which approach could you use to shorten the duration of the project?
A. Perform resource leveling for the project.
B. Crash the project schedule.
C. Fast track the project.
D. Remove things from the project scope.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are the project manager of the NHA Project. This project is expected to last one year with quarterly
milestones throughout the year. Your project is supposed to be at the third milestone today but you're
likely only 60 percent complete. Your project has a BAC of $745,000 and you've spent $440,000 of the
budget-to-date. What is your schedule performance index for this project?
A. 80
B. 1.02
C. 102
D. 0.80
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where
you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of
$567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project's
to-complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Answer: A

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NO.15 Once the project's WBS has been created what process may happen next?
A. Estimate activity resources
B. Define activities
C. Estimate activity durations
D. Sequence activities
Answer: B

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NO.16 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate
performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you
create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report
Answer: B

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NO.17 You have created the project network diagram for the ABC project. You are exploring total float and
free float for that project. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float
and free float. What is the difference between total float and free float?
A. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
B. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project successors.
C. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project predecessors.
D. Total float is the amount of time a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Gina is the project manager for her organization and she is working with her project team to define the
project activities. In this project, the stakeholders are sensitive to the project completion date,
so Gina is stressing to her project team members that while they need to provide and account for all of the
project activities, they should focus on one work package in the WBS at a time. In order to start the
decomposition of the project work packages into activities, Gina will need all of the following except for
which one?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. WBS
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: C

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NO.19 The Define Activities process is the first process in the project time management knowledge are a.
The Define Activities process creates just three outputs as a result of decomposition, rolling wave
planning, templates, and expert judgment. Which one of the following is not an output of the Define
Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project document updates
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. Management has set a conformance to the project
schedule for your project at 0.95. What does this term mean?
A. It means the largest schedule variance you can have is five percent.
B. It is the earned value divided by the planned value for your project.
C. It is the expectation of management to be 95 on schedule at 95 percent of the project.
D. It means you will need to earn at least 95 cents per dollar invested in the project.
Answer: A

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NO.21 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. When activities are logically linked, they become the
__________
Answer: Schedule.

NO.22 George is the project manager of the NHQ Project and has a budget of $778,000. The project is
scheduled to last for one year with an equal amount of work completed each quarter. The second quarter
of the project has ended and George has spent $325,000 but has only finished forty percent of the project.
Management needs a variance report for the project schedule. What value should George report in this
instance?
A. .96
B. -$77,800
C. $-34,500
D. -$13,800
Answer: B

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NO.23 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. You have created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
You are concerned about a risk on Activity G that if it happens will delay the project by four days.
You would like to utilize float for Activity G. How much float is available for Activity G to help offset the risk
event?
A. Five days
B. Four days
C. Eleven days
D. Zero
Answer: D

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NO.24 You are the project manager of the GHT Project. Ben, one of your project team members, does not
understand the idea of a milestone. Which of the following best describes what a milestone is?
A. A significant point in the project
B. A goal of reaching a significant delivery of project benefits by an identified date
C. An imposed date for the project to reach a given point
D. The completion of a project activity that is crucial to project completion
Answer: A

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NO.25 Examine the figure given below:
If Activity B takes eight days to complete instead of five days as schedule, how long can you now delay
Activity H?
A. Three days
B. One day
C. Four days
D. Zero days
Answer: B

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NO.26 You are the project manager of the NHGQ project for your company. You must create and distribute
performance reports every week to your key project stakeholders. What communication technique do you
normally use to distribute reports?
A. Push technique
B. Many-to-many
C. One-to-one
D. Pull technique
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which one of the following estimate types is a form of expert judgment?
A. Parametric estimate
B. Analogous estimate
C. Bottom-up estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Answer: B

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NO.28 You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the
figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect
the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the
activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
Answer: D

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NO.29 Beth is the project manager for her organization. Her current project has many deliverables that have
been defined at a high level, but the details of the deliverables are still unknown. In her project, Beth is
planning in detail only the activities that are most imminent in the project work. This approach to project
management planning is known as what?
A. Imminent activity management
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Predecessor-only diagramming
D. Decomposition
Answer: B

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NO.30 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
The __________ includes a description of any collateral services required, such as performancereporting
or post-project operational support for the procured item.
Answer: procurement SOW

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