050-SEPROGRC-01 dernières questions d'examen certification RSA et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 050-SEPROGRC-01
Nom d'Examen: RSA (RSA Certified SE Professional in Governance, Risk and Compliance)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 How many databases are needed to support the RSA Archer Platform?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. One database is needed for every application created in the system.
Answer: B

RSA examen   050-SEPROGRC-01   050-SEPROGRC-01

NO.2 The Preferences menu in the top frame of the system allows users to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Select workspaces for display
B. Update user profile information
C. Subscribe to email notifications
D. Update records within applications
Answer: D

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NO.3 The Audit Management solution includes audit-related applications as well as a set of
applications related to what other area?
A. Risk Management
B. Vendor Management
C. Staffing Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C

RSA   certification 050-SEPROGRC-01   050-SEPROGRC-01   050-SEPROGRC-01   050-SEPROGRC-01
7. The Business Continuity Management solution also includes applications that address which
two of the following issues? (Choose two)
A. Crisis Events
B. Evidence Gathered
C. Disaster Recovery
D. Incident Management
E. Investigations In Progress
Answer: A,C

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8. The Compliance Management solution readily interacts with all of the following RSA Archer
solutions EXCEPT:
A. Risk Management
B. Policy Management
C. Incident Management
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: C

RSA   certification 050-SEPROGRC-01   certification 050-SEPROGRC-01
9. The Enterprise Management solution is split into which two sub-solutions?
A. Asset Management and Company Hierarchy
B. Business Infrastructure and Enterprise Hierarchy
C. Organizational Structure and Asset Management
D. Business Hierarchy and Enterprise Infrastructure
Answer: D

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10. The Incident Management solution uses which application as its central starting point?
A. Contacts
B. Incidents
C. Investigations
D. Response Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the minimum operating system requirement for the RSA Archer Web Server?
A. Microsoft Windows 2000 Server
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 R2
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: B

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NO.5 When a notification isn't received as expected, it is likely something is configured incorrectly in:
A. The Notification Reports
B. The configuration database
C. The notification template itself
D. The application supporting the notification
Answer: C

RSA   050-SEPROGRC-01   050-SEPROGRC-01

NO.6 Administrators can access features on the Administration tab to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Create new records
B. Configure questionnaires
C. Add new fields to applications
D. Change the colors of the system
Answer: A

RSA   050-SEPROGRC-01   050-SEPROGRC-01   050-SEPROGRC-01

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Code d'Examen: CRISC
Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control)
Questions et réponses: 395 Q&As

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PMI meilleur examen PMI-001, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PMI-001
Nom d'Examen: PMI (Project Management Professional)
Questions et réponses: 600 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the job title of the person who is primarily responsible for the quality of
deliverables?
A. The quality control inspector.
B. The quality controller.
C. The design engineer.
D. The project manager.
E. The quality manager.
Answer: D

PMI examen   PMI-001   PMI-001 examen   PMI-001

NO.2 When preparing the probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, what is
the estimate with a 15% probability of being exceeded approximately one standard
deviation ___________?
A. Above the mean.
B. Below the mean.
C. Below the median.
D. Above the median.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT an essential regarding a project close-out?
A. Documenting formal acceptance of the product.
B. Documenting the final risk assessment.
C. Documenting the lessons learned.
D. Documenting the final project scope
E. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Certain resources have been added to tasks on the critical path so as to reduce the
project duration. As a result the plan should then be reviewed for the:
A. Possible lag time on other paths.
B. Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path.
C. The most time consuming task remaining in the plan.
D. Emergence of a new critical path.
Answer: D

PMI   PMI-001   PMI-001   PMI-001 examen   PMI-001

NO.5 Which of the following statements BEST describes what project progress reports
are?
A. It is used to predict future status and progress.
B. The project sponsor makes the most use of it.
C. It is an important communications element.
D. It is needed on a weekly basis.
Answer: C

PMI   PMI-001 examen   PMI-001

NO.6 Which of the following is NOT an indirect cost?
A. Insurance costs.
B. Payroll tax cost.
C. Subcontract costs.
D. Accounting support costs.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In which of the following circumstances is it BEST to make use of the project
management approach? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Cross functional tasks.
B. Unique operations.
C. Product manufacturing environment.
D. Time-constrained deliverables.
E. Production-line environment.
Answer: A, B, D

PMI   PMI-001   PMI-001   PMI-001

NO.8 Which of the following should be done by the project manager upon completion of
the project?
A. Planning a turnover meeting.
B. Obtaining a sign-off from the customer.
C. Team celebration.
D. Project evaluation.
E. Performance evaluation of team members.
Answer: B

PMI   certification PMI-001   certification PMI-001

NO.9 What does a benefit-cost ratio of 3.22 indicate?
A. A profit of s3.22 per unit produced.
B. A payback of s3.22 for each dollar expended.
C. The percentage of resources assigned to other tasks on the critical path.
D. The gold plating result.
E. A profit of s3.22 for each dollar expended.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following represents the pinnacle of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
A. Survival.
B. Self-actualization.
C. Safety.
D. Esteem.
E. Physiological satisfaction.
Answer: B

PMI   PMI-001   certification PMI-001   PMI-001 examen

NO.11 Which of the following requires an expenditure of the resources when working
within an arrow diagramming method?
A. Histograms.
B. Accounting support costs.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Milestone events.
E. Path activities.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following represents the BEST process to accomplish resource
planning?
A. Identifying the required resources in the project charter
B. Identifying the available resources and allocate them to all activities in the current
phase of the project.
C. Identifying the required resources and allocate them to all project activities.
D. Identifying the resources that performed past similar projects, and allocate them to all
project activities
E. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.13 Consider the following situation: The customer was given a monthly report that
indicates zero schedule variance. One of the teams members are aware of at least
one milestone that has not been achieved. This missed milestone will result in an
overall delay in the project.
Which of the following items were not reported on adequately?
A. Critical path status
B. Risk analysis
C. Communication plan variance
D. Resource management plan
E. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.14 The "Cost of quality" project management concept includes ____?
A. The costs involved when changes are made to the requirements
B. The costs of ensuring that requirements are conformed to.
C. The costs incurred when requirements are exceeded.
D. The costs involved with quality control requirements.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Where does comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of
work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk all occur?
A. Stakeholder meeting.
B. Resource leveling activity.
C. Project audit.
D. Contract negotiation.
Answer: C

PMI   PMI-001 examen   PMI-001   PMI-001

NO.16 Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic between the network
diagram and the Gantt chart?
A. Few resources
B. Key milestones
C. Critical dates
D. Critical dependencies
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following are indicative of duration estimates?
A. How many hours a resource will work on an activity.
B. When an activity is expected to start.
C. How many work periods an activity is expected to last.
D. When an activity is expected to finish.
Answer: C

PMI   certification PMI-001   PMI-001   certification PMI-001   PMI-001

NO.18 Taking the following table into account, where would corrective action be MOST
effective when you make use of Pareto's Rule?
Origin of Problem Percent of Problems
Design 60
Development 15
Prototype 10
Testing 10
Fabrication 5
A. Development
B. Prototype
C. Fabrication
D. Design
E. Testing
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has
the least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration?
A. Critical path
B. Dependency diagramming
C. PERT
D. Gantt chart
E. Monte Carlo method
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following are included in cost control? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Informing stakeholders of changes.
B. Preparing cost estimates.
C. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
D. Monitoring cost performance.
Answer: A, C, D

PMI   PMI-001   PMI-001

NO.21 Which of the following represents a consequence to the project in the event of a
resource being added to the project team during execution?
A. Shorter project completion schedule.
B. An indeterminable effect.
C. A requirement for a scope change.
D. An increase in project quality.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of the following statements depicts the key difference between contract
close-out and administrative closure?
A. Contract close-out formalizes project completion.
B. Contract close-out includes product verification.
C. Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.
D. Administrative closure includes procurement audits.
E. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of the following represents the final task during project close-out?
A. Reassignment of team member.
B. Verification that contractual obligations were met.
C. Transferring the deliverables to the client.
D. Completion of performance/lessons-learned records.
Answer: C

PMI examen   PMI-001   PMI-001   PMI-001

NO.24 Which of the following factors are NOT included in cost control?
A. Preparation of cost estimates.
B. Informing stakeholders of changes.
C. Monitoring cost performance.
D. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-001   PMI-001 examen   PMI-001   PMI-001

NO.25 What would be the cost performance index if BCWP =350, ACWP = 400, and BCWS = 325? Note:
Budgeted Cost of
Work Performed (BCWP), Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) and Budget Cost of Work Schedule
(BCWS)
A. 0.813
B. 1.078
C. 1.143
D. 0.875
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following describes Fast Tracking?
A. Circumventing loopholes.
B. Developing workarounds for previous problems.
C. Increased project risk.
D. Getting people to work longer hours in overtime.
E. Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.
Answer: C

PMI   PMI-001   PMI-001   PMI-001

NO.27 Which of the following is NOT included in activity duration estimated?
A. Project team knowledge.
B. Commercial duration databases.
C. Time studies.
D. Information from previous experience.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following is illustrated by a resource histogram?
A. The expected requirements for critical path activities.
B. The expected resource usage by time period.
C. The resource assignments by work package.
D. The resource assignments by activities.
E. All of the above.
Answer: B

PMI   PMI-001   PMI-001

NO.29 Which of the following is the MAIN reason for including incentive clauses in a
contract?
A. Reducing costs to the buyer.
B. Controlling contractor costs.
C. Aligning contractor and buyer goals.
D. Reducing production costs.
E. Reducing contractor risk.
Answer: C

PMI   PMI-001   certification PMI-001   PMI-001   certification PMI-001

NO.30 Under which of the following circumstances would project management is the NOT
be the preferred management approach?
A. Cross functional tasks.
B. Unique operations.
C. Product manufacturing environment.
D. Time-constrained deliverables.
Answer: C

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Le dernier examen ICDL ICDL-Windows gratuit Télécharger

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Code d'Examen: ICDL-Windows
Nom d'Examen: ICDL (The ICDL L4 Windows Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Change the keyboard language to UK English.
A. Select->keyboard->input Locales->select to EnglishUK->press Set as Defaults->ok
Answer: A

ICDL   ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows

NO.2 If the computer application you are working on has "frozen" what is the first thing you should do.?
A. Re-install the non-responding application.
B. Pressctrl+Alt+Delete.
C. Turn off the PC's power supply.
D. Slect Exit from the application's File menu.
Answer: B

ICDL   certification ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows

NO.3 On the simulated Windows desktop carry out the necessary steps to restart the computer.
A. Select->start->shutdown->restart->ok
Answer: A

ICDL   ICDL-Windows   certification ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows

NO.4 Use tshe simulated Windows Desktop to find out how much RAM is installed.
Select the appropriate radio button then click on SUBMIT.
A. R.click on my computer->pro perties->General->select the RAM Speed->ok
Answer: A

ICDL examen   ICDL-Windows   certification ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows examen

NO.5 Pressing which of the following keys would place a picture of what is currently displayed on your monitor
onto the clipboard?
A. A
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 100-500
Nom d'Examen: Zend-Technologies (Zend Framework Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 202 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to set the form method in post and action to /uc/zend.php when you are using the
Zend_Form class. Which of the following code snippets will you use to accomplish the task?
A. <?php
$form->setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->setMethod('post');
B. <?php
echo "<form action=\"/uc/zend.php \" method=POST>";
C. <?php
$form->('/uc/zend.php')
->('post');
D. <?php
$form->Zend::setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->Zend::setMethod('post');
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   certification 100-500   100-500   100-500   100-500

NO.2 Which of the following code snippets will you use to instantiate Zend_XmlRpc_Server?
A. $server = Zend_Xml::Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
B. $server = new Zend_Xml();
C. $server = new Zend_XmlRpc_Server();
D. $server = create_new_Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies   100-500 examen   100-500 examen   100-500

NO.3 You want a formatted date for an RSS feed. Which of the following code syntaxes will you use
to accomplish the task?
A. Zend_Date::RSSFEED
B. Zend_Date::RSS
C. $RSS= new Zend_RSS_Date()
D. Zend_Date->RSS
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500   100-500 examen

NO.4 Which of the following functions sets up start and end element handlers?
A. xml_parse_into_struct()
B. xml_parser_create_ns()
C. xml_set_object()
D. xml_set_element_handler()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500

NO.5 Which of the following is used to create a new Memory Manager?
A. Zend_Memory::factory()
B. Zend_Memory->NewMemoryManager()
C. Zend_Memory->factory()
D. Zend_Memory::NewMemoryManager()
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500   100-500

NO.6 Which of the following functions can be used as a countermeasure to a Shell Injection attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. mysql_real_escape_string()
B. escapeshellcmd()
C. regenerateid()
D. escapeshellarg()
Answer: B,D

Zend-Technologies examen   certification 100-500   100-500   certification 100-500   100-500

NO.7 Which of the following methods will you use to retain the identity across requests according to
the PHP session configuration?
A. isValid()
B. getIdentity()
C. Zend_Auth::authenticate()
D. getCode()
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500

NO.8 Which of the following are the configuration files that are used in Zend_Config?
A. Zend_Config_Server
B. Zend_Config_Xml
C. Zend_Config_Db
D. Zend_Config_Ini
Answer: B,D

Zend-Technologies examen   100-500 examen   100-500 examen   100-500 examen   100-500

NO.9 Which of the following methods in Zend_Controller_Action can be used for resetting the state
when multiple controllers use the same helper in the chained actions?
A. preDispatch()
B. setActionController()
C. postDispatch()
D. init()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500   certification 100-500

NO.10 You have a table created as follows:
create table foo (c1 int, c2 char(30), c3 int, c4 char(10)) If column c1 is unique, which of the
following indexes would optimize the statement given below?
Select distinct (c1), c3 from foo where c1=10
A. create unique index foox on foo (c1) include (c3)
B. create index foox on foo (c1)
C. create index foox on foo (c1,c3)
D. create unique index foox on foo (c1,c3)
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   100-500 examen   100-500   100-500 examen   100-500 examen

NO.11 You want to retrieve all the data from any given table. You also want to ensure that no
duplicate values are displayed. Which of the following SQL statements will you use to accomplish
the task?
A. SELECT...TOP
B. SELECT...WHERE
C. SELECT...DISTINCT
D. SELECT...ALL
Answer: C

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NO.12 Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle
database. The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table:
EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY
EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL
Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL
Commission NUMBER (4, 2)
ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25)
ManagerID NUMBER (5)
Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the
following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e, Employeesm WHERE e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID
= m.ManagerID;
C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m ON
e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
Answer: A,B

Zend-Technologies examen   certification 100-500   100-500

NO.13 In which of the following situations will you use the set_exception_handler() function?
A. When you want to restore a previously defined exception handler function.
B. When the try/catch block is unable to catch an exception.
C. When you want to set a user-defined function to handle errors.
D. When you want to generate a user-level error/warning/notice message.
Answer: B

certification Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500 examen

NO.14 Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to send an email in the HTML format.
Answer: setBodyHTML()

NO.15 Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?
A. addTo()
B. send()
C. addBcc()
D. appendMessage()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500 examen   100-500 examen   100-500

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Code d'Examen: FM0-305
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 11)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 11? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both.
Answer: DE

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NO.2 Given a text field myText that contains "<color>blue</color>", which formula extracts the word "blue"
from the field?
A. Filter (myText ; "color")
B. MiddleWords (myText ; 2)
C. PatternMatch (myText ; "blue")
D. Middle ( myText ; Position ( myText ; "blue" ; 1 ; 1 ) ;4)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in FileMaker
Pro 11? (Choose three.)
A. Existing value
B. Member of value list
C. Strict data type: Integer
D. Strict data type: Time of Day
E. Strict data type: Alphanumeric
F. Minimum number of characters
Answer: ABD

certification FileMaker   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.4 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.5 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records... nor the Delete
related records... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-305   certification FM0-305   FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.6 A Text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 11 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & LastName.
FirstName and LastName are Text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all referenced
fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
C. each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: AE

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.7 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 11 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 11 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

certification FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.9 Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: BE

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.10 Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in field options, using
the following formula:
name First & " " & Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
for which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name? (Choose
two.)
A. when the record is first created
B. when the field Full Name itself is modified
C. only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. when either of the fields Name First or Name Last are modified
E. when the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: AD

FileMaker   certification FM0-305   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305

NO.11 A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on the
Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related records in
Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.
What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & " " & Name Last) will be broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values in the
Client ID field deleted.
Answer: C

FileMaker examen   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305 examen

NO.12 A table in a FileMaker Pro 11 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
D. The user will see the custom error message, but in the case of an import, overriding the error is not
allowed and no records are imported.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may be indexed.
B. All non-text data types are converted to text.
C. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation.
D. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL.
E. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: C

FileMaker   certification FM0-305   certification FM0-305   certification FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.14 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 11 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
B. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
C. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
D. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of join criteria can be used.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: BE

FileMaker   FM0-305   certification FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.15 Which script trigger could provide the functionality to prevent invalid data from being committed while
allowing the ability to revert the record?
A. OnObjectSave
B. OnObjectExit
C. OnObjectModify
D. OnObjectValidate
Answer: D

FileMaker examen   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305 examen

NO.16 Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after renaming the
Item file to Artifact?
A. delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and recreate them
for Artifact
B. click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file path
C. choose File > Manage > External Data Sources... for Collection and reset the file path
D. select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right-click to
choose Rename File Source...
E. choose the File > Recover... menu in FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced, select the Collection file, then
choose Repair References under Advanced Recover Options
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.17 Which three FileMaker Pro 11 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose three.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed Timestamp field
C. A Text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored Calculation field
E. Globally stored Number field placed in a portal
F. A Container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: ADE

FileMaker examen   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305

NO.18 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. There are no records in the Event table at this time.
B. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC data source.
C. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
D. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data sources.
E. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both related Task
and Volunteer data.
Answer: E

certification FileMaker   certification FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.19 Which two features require indexing in order to work? (Choose two.)
A. List function
B. Dynamic subsummary reports
C. Auto-complete using existing values
D. Dynamic value lists based on FileMaker tables
E. Add Leading Group by <field name> in Table View
Answer: CD

certification FileMaker   certification FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.20 Given the following Relationships Graph for a FileMaker 11 database, where Employee, Manager, and
Trainer are all table occurrences sharing the same source table:
Assuming the relevant fields also exist in these tables, which two sets of data can be shown in portals
without modifying the graph? (Choose two.)
A. a portal of trainers that have taught their own manager
B. a portal of students that have not enrolled in a class
C. a portal showing a non-repeating list of courseware titles taught by a trainer
D. a portal of the classes that have been attended by a trainer's direct reports
E. a portal of classes in which a manager enrolled with one or more of the manager's direct reports
Answer: CD

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4)
Questions et réponses: 320 Q&As

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NO.1 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

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NO.2 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

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NO.3 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

VMware   VCP410   VCP410   VCP410   VCP410 examen

NO.5 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.6 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

VMware examen   VCP410   certification VCP410   VCP410 examen

NO.9 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

VMware   VCP410 examen   certification VCP410   certification VCP410

NO.10 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

VMware   certification VCP410   certification VCP410   certification VCP410   certification VCP410   certification VCP410

NO.11 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

VMware   VCP410   VCP410 examen   VCP410   VCP410

NO.12 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

VMware   VCP410   certification VCP410   VCP410

NO.13 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

certification VMware   VCP410   VCP410   VCP410   certification VCP410

NO.14 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

VMware   VCP410   certification VCP410   VCP410 examen   certification VCP410   VCP410 examen

NO.15 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

certification VMware   VCP410 examen   VCP410   VCP410

NO.16 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

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NO.17 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.20 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

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