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Code d'Examen: DP-021W
Nom d'Examen: Veritas (Design of Data Protection Solutions for Windows using NetBackup 5.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
NetBackup.
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
A. bpexpdate
B. bpclntcmd
C. bptest
D. bpverify
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your current Netbackup environment uses a tape library capable of holding 500 tapes .
Each tape is capable of holding 40GB of data. You are putting in a new library with
modem drives capable of holding 300GB each. You want to have twice the total capacity
of your old library to meet future growth.
What is the minimum of tape slots you will need in your new library?
A. 80
B. 110
C. 140
D. 170
Answer: C

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NO.3 Recovery Time Objectives address which element?
A. Databases must be recovered to the last fully committed transition.
B. Cold database backups must be performed every day.
C. The data in different applications may have different recovery requirements
D. Flat file and database are to be treated the same in terms of importance.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
logical (software-related)
environmental
B. management failures
Logical (software-related)
environmental
C. SPDFA
logical(software-related)
environmental(software-related)
D. hardware failure
logical(software-related)
environmental
Answer: D

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NO.5 A large number of Windows 2003 clients are failing with status code 11. it is suspected
that the snapshot process is failing. In reviewing the Activity Monitor logs it is found that
backups of certain clients are very slow. These clients host a large number of small files.
What NetBackup feature helps resolve this issue?
A. VNETD
B. VOPIED
C. multiplexing
D. multistreaming
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have a Microsoft Windows 2003 client, which you want to add to the NetBackup
use VSP or NetBackup database options (for example, MSSQL,
Exchange, Oracle, and so on) on this client.
What would be the impact to downtime?
A. There will be two reboots required one reboot to load the VERITAS installer and one
reboot for NetBackup installation
B. There is no need for a reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed
C. There will be one reboot to load the VERITAS installer, but NetBackup will not
require a separate reboot.
D. There will be a need for NetBackup to be properly installed
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?
A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups
D. incremental backups
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which major shift in business direction most significantly affects for the highest levels of
Data Protection?
A. customer self-service Web applications
B. staff reduction
C. automated workgroup processes
D. revenue recognition
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are determining the scope of a data protection solution. You have already
analyzedpreferences and deadlines.
Which two other items must be analyzed before you can provide a solution? (choose
two).
A. information in the SLA
B. network infrastructure
C. number of employees
D. number of tapes purchased
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Your current environment consists of one master server, four media servers and five
hundred clients. Your company has planned to add an additional datacenter with the
capacity of housing an additional 1,000 clients.
Which three things are considered when planning the expansion of your backup
environment? (choose three)
A. the operating system version of clients
B. SAN infrastructure available
C. cooling capacity of new datacenter
D. network connectivity between the datacenters
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 In reviewing the bpbkar logs on a NetBackup client to investigate slow backups it is
noticed that several drives are being backed up concurrently rather than sequentially.
Each of the logical drives is a partition on a single physical disk drive.
Which is disabled to avoid "disk thrashing" on this client and other similarly configured
clients?
A. multistreaming
B. True Image Restore
C. parallel backups
D. multiplexing
Answer: A

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NO.12 Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 A new file server is being added to your NetBackup 5.0 environment. It is being used to
store 1-GB 'product' data files for the marketing department. The marketing department
already has 6,000 product data files in place (5 TB of total disk space) and expects to add
about 500 product files per week for the next 30 weeks. After files are added they are
never edited or modified.
You have an SLA with Marketing that you will perform a full backup every Saturday,
and the backup must be performed between 12:01a.m Saturday and Noon Saturday (a
36-hour window)
Given this, what is the minimum network bandwidth you need to handle the full backup?
A. teamed 1-gigabit (168 MB/s)
B. single 1-gigabit (84 MB/s)
C. 100 base T (8.4 MB/s)
D. 10 base T (0.8 MB/s)
Answer: A

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NO.14 In which case will the FlashBackup feature be of benefit?
A. a large Oracle database that contains lots of data
B. a server with file system that are 80% full, containing several million files each
C. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing old files
D. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing a few files, each several
hundred MB
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have already designed a proposed solution for a department's data protection
requirement. Now you want to validate the design with the department
Which change in the department's environment affects your design the most?
A. increased server memory capacity
B. upgrades the Master Server
C. increased distance between clients and servers
D. a dedicated backup network
Answer: D

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NO.16 Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media
server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
ServerA
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
media server
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three items are optional considerations in a Data Protection design? (Choose
three)
A using supported server platforms
B. using agents for databases
C. using mirror snapshots for backups
D. using a private backup network
Answer: BCD

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NO.18 When determining the required backup performance of a Data Protection design,
which three items should be determined? (choose three)
A. media server backup performance
B. network and SAN data rates
C. capacity of tape media
D. client backup windows
Answer: ABD

Veritas   DP-021W   DP-021W

NO.19 A system administrator has communicated an interest in using the NetBackup
FlashBackup feature of the Advanced Client. What key technical information must you
gather in order to know whether this feature would be appropriate.
A. number of files on the file system
B. frequency of backups needed
C. density of the tapes being used for backups
D. age of the files on the file system
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have analyzed the current configuration of a data protection environment.
You now need to determine your expectations for future growth.
Which type of analysis do you perform?
A. Gap Analysis
B. Storage Checkpoint analysis
C. GANTT chart analysis
D. PERT chart analysis
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: TB0-110
Nom d'Examen: Tibco (TIBCO Collaborative Information Manager 7 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is incorrect when using a database table as a CIM data source?
A. Any new records added to the table are immediately available to CIM
B. The table or view must reside in the same database instance that CIM is using
C. If the data source contains any attributes of typedate, all such attributes must have the same date
format
D. It is not possible to provide CIM specific column names for the table when defining the data source
properties
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page? (Choose two.)
A. Date Format
B. Default Repository
C. Activate Delegation
D. Activate Auto-Approval
E. Default Catalog Format
F. Activate Out-Of-Office Notification
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 The workflow activities that support parallel processing can be tuned for performance. This can be
achieved by configuring a parameter for the activity RecordPerAsyncCall. What is the default value for
this parameter?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE
B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE
C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE
D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE
E. No parameters settings are required
F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which TIBCO CIM utility is used to apply a hot fix?
A. tibcoUtil
B. hotfixUtil
C. migrateUtil
D. customUtil
E. tibcoCIMUtil
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three are valid topic names with TIBCO CIM? (Choose three.)
A. T_ECM_CORE_ADMIN
B. T_ECM_CORE_RULE_CACHE
C. T_ECM_CORE_OBJECT_CACHE
D. T_ECM_CORE_REPOSITORY_CACHE
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 To enable text search continuous indexing, the Text Indexing Enabled property is set to which option?
A. Online
B. Offline
C. Discrete
D. Continuous
E. User Enabled
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two configurable settings are related to workflow in TIBCO CIM Configurator? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow Cache Size
B. Workflow Timeout Value
C. Workflow Restart Attempts
D. Workflow Manager Directory
E. Workflow File Extension Default
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about Subflow and SpawnWorkflow activities? (Choose two.)
A. BothSubflows and SpawnWorkflows can be nested.
B. Subflows can be nested, but SpawnWorkflows can not.
C. Both execution modes are supported by both activities.
D. SpawnWorkflow is ASYNCHR and Subflow is SYNCHR.
E. Subflow is ASYNCHR and SpawnWorkflow is SYNCHR.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which three statements are true about context variables for a rulebase? (Choose three.)
A. The SESSION object requires explicit declaration in therulebase.
B. Previous confirmed and unconfirmed version records can be accessed.
C. Attribute access can be restricted to certain roles using context variables.
D. RECORD_ACTION is a special variable and can be directly used for operation.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?
A. Send
B. HandleMessaging
C. SendProtocolMessage
D. ProcessServiceMessage
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 You delete the log files in the MQ_COMMON_DIR/Work directory. What is affected?
A. Elink log
B. Event log
C. Record History
D. Repository History
Answer: B

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NO.14 A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
Answer: C

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NO.15 What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?
A. Text Search
B. Event Search
C. Subset Rules
D. Record Search
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two can an input map use to assign an attribute a value? (Choose two.)
A. hard-coded value
B. a concatenation of two or moredatasource columns
C. an expression based on the value of a child record attribute
D. a user-supplied value provided during execution of the import event
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 Which three statements are true about the catalogs when used for extracting the data from a repository?
(Choose three.)
A. You can choose which attributes are to be extracted.
B. You can choose which record status should be included.
C. You can choose subset rules defined on a different master catalog.
D. You can choose anyrulebase if there are any transformation rules to be applied.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 Which three are supported command types for the MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
three.)
A. Add
B. Copy
C. Query
D. Modify
E. Compare
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 The following sample section of a rulebase will result in the displaying of which alerts on the UI?
A. Warning Only
B. Information Only
C. Severe Error Only
D. No alerts will be presented
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
six.)
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.1 If a technique is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated in the
Document Categorization Model, then in which category should it be placed?
A. TOGAF Extension
B. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: C

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NO.2 In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact will contain one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To show the evolution of deliverables
D. To support change management
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which one of the following describes the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

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NO.5 According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

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NO.1 You are determining the scope of a data protection solution. You have already analyzed preferences
and deadlines.
Which two other items must be analyzed before you can provide a solution? (Choose two.)
A.information in the SLA
B.network infrastructure
C.number of employees
D.number of tapes purchased
ANSWER: AB

Symantec examen   250-421   250-421 examen

NO.2 The current NetBackup environment has grown to the point where catalog backups can no longer fit
on one tape.
Which two methods resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A.back up the catalog using multistaged backup
B.compress the catalog
C.stop backing up the catalog
D.compress the catalog with gzip
ANSWER: AB

Symantec   250-421   250-421   certification 250-421   250-421 examen   250-421 examen

NO.3 Which three items are considered in a Data Protection design? (Choose three.)
A.company hardware standards
B.the type of cabling used for networks and SAN
C.data throughput speeds over networks and SAN
D.business requirements for recovery point and time
ANSWER: ACD

Symantec examen   certification 250-421   250-421   250-421   250-421 examen   certification 250-421

NO.4 Which three items are optional considerations in a Data Protection design? (Choose three.)
A.using supported server platforms
B.using agents for databases
C.using mirror snapshots for backups
D.using a private backup network
ANSWER: BCD

Symantec   250-421   250-421   certification 250-421

NO.5 Human Resources has three servers being backed up in a NetBackup 5.0 environment with a
requirement to be able to perform full server restores from any particular day going back three weeks.
Given the following environment standards:
Full backups are performed every other Friday.
Cumulative incremental backups are performed on all other days.
What are the minimum retention levels you should configure?
A.Full: two weeks Incremental: three weeks
B.Full: three weeks Incremental: one week
C.Full: four weeks Incremental: three weeks
D.Full: two months Incremental: three weeks
ANSWER: C

Symantec   250-421   250-421 examen   250-421   250-421

NO.6 You are designing a NetBackup environment. You will be using an external (non-NetBackup)
scheduling product to initiate the jobs from the Master Server.
Which three NetBackup features will be available in this configuration? (Choose three.)
A.cumulative incremental backup
B.automatic retry of failed jobs
C.multistreaming
D.multiplexing
ANSWER: ACD

Symantec   250-421   250-421 examen   250-421

NO.7 When determining the required backup performance of a Data Protection design, which three items
should be determined? (Choose three.)
A.media server backup performance
B.network and SAN data rates
C.capacity of tape media
D.client backup windows
ANSWER: ABD

certification Symantec   250-421   250-421

NO.8 Your current environment consists of one master server, four media servers and five hundred clients.
Your company has planned to add an additional datacenter with the capacity of housing an additional
1,000 clients.
Which three things are considered when planning the expansion of your backup environment? (Choose
three.)
A.the operating system version of clients
B.SAN infrastructure available
C.cooling capacity of new datacenter
D.network connectivity between the datacenters
ANSWER: ABD

Symantec examen   250-421   250-421

NO.9 Your current NetBackup environment uses a tape library capable of holding 500 tapes. Each tape is
capable of holding 40 GB of data. You are putting in a new library with modern drives which supports
tapes capable of holding 300 GB each. You want to have twice the total capacity of your old library to
meet future growth.
What is the minimum number of tape slots you will need in your new library?
A.80
B.110
C.140
D.170
ANSWER: C

certification Symantec   250-421 examen   certification 250-421   certification 250-421   250-421

NO.10 A current NetBackup environment takes the entire backup window to complete. Given the following
environment:
You do not use multiplexing.
There are eight clients each capable of producing 5 MB/s.
The network is capable of sustaining 60 MB/s.
The media server has three tape drives, each capable of sustaining 20 MB/s.
How do you continue to meet the backup window while adding six more similarly configured clients?
A.increase the multitape option
B.increase the network bandwidth
C.increase the number of backup schedules
D.increase the number of tape drives
ANSWER: D

Symantec   250-421 examen   250-421   250-421   250-421

NO.11 You currently administer a NetBackup 5.0 environment with a single master/media server backing up
57 network clients through 1-gigabit Ethernet. A tape library is attached to this system through a Fibre
Channel SAN.
Backups jobs are currently completing within your backup window, though there is little time to spare.
After performing an analysis, you determine that you are maximizing your Ethernet usage, but your tape
drives are only running at about half their rated capacity. Backups are performed at night on the public
Ethernet when usage is virtually nonexistent.
You are told that two new systems are being added to your environment with 4 TB of data each. These
systems must be backed up within the same backup window.
What are three ways to help accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A.set up another committed media server and share the tape drives through SSO on the SAN
B.add a second gigabit card to the master/media server for the new servers to back up across
C.make the two new large systems SAN media servers and share the tape drives through SSO on the
SAN
D.create a 1-gigabit private network for all clients to back up across and stop using the public network
altogether
ANSWER: ABC

Symantec   250-421   250-421 examen   250-421   certification 250-421

NO.12 You want to evaluate an environment for a NetBackup 5.0 implementation. You are already aware of
which servers will be the master and media servers and which agents will be used.
What else do you determine in order to provide the proper installation requirements for NetBackup?
A.Is Name Resolution functioning properly?
B.Is every client present in the master server hosts file?
C.Is the root partition on the master server mirrored?
D.Is mySQL installed?
ANSWER: A

Symantec   250-421   certification 250-421   250-421   250-421

NO.13 Which two items are gathered during the data collection for a Data Protection design? (Choose two.)
A.backup client platforms and operating system versions
B.amount of Data to be backed up
C.Sales Engineers preference of tape library vendors
D.existence of network intrusion detection servers
ANSWER: AB

Symantec   250-421 examen   250-421   250-421   250-421   250-421 examen

NO.14 A new file server is being added to your NetBackup 5.0 environment. It is being used to store 1-GB
product data files for the marketing department. The marketing department already has 5,000 product
data files in place (5 TB of total disk space) and expects to add about 500 product files per week for the
next 30 weeks. After files are added they are never edited or modified.
You have an SLA with Marketing that you will perform a full backup every Saturday, and the backup must
be performed between 12:01 a.m. Saturday and Noon Sunday (a 36-hour window).
Given this, what is the minimum network bandwidth you need to handle the full backup?
A.teamed 1-gigabit (168 MB/s)
B.single 1-gigabit (84 MB/s)
C.100 base T (8.4 MB/s)
D.10 base T (0.8 MB/s)
ANSWER: A

Symantec examen   certification 250-421   250-421   250-421   certification 250-421   250-421 examen

NO.15 A database must be able to recover from a logical data error in which invalid application data has been
entered and saved.
Which data protection technique is most likely to help in this situation?
A.database server clustering
B.a backup of the database and daily logs
C.disk array based real-time replication
D.active storage mirroring
ANSWER: B

certification Symantec   250-421   250-421 examen   certification 250-421   250-421 examen

NO.16 Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?
A.fast backups
B.off-host backups
C.referential backups
D.incremental backups
ANSWER: B

Symantec   certification 250-421   certification 250-421   250-421   250-421

NO.17 You are designing a data protection solution for a new datacenter.
Which two things can be done to improve the overall availability of the data protection environment?
(Choose two.)
A.add an additional local disk to each backup server
B.connect each system to separate power sources
C.mirror the boot disk of each backup server
D.connect a tape drive to each client in the datacenter
ANSWER: BC

Symantec   250-421   250-421 examen

NO.18 Given three servers named ServerA, ServerB, and ServerC, each of which has file systems /, /opt,
and /data:
Using one policy how can all drives be backed on each server except the /data file system on ServerB?
A.All servers in a policy must share the same file list, so you must create a separate policy for ServerB.
B.use ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES with UNSET and //serverb/data below it in the policy file list
C.use /opt in the policy file list and put /data in the include_list file for all servers except ServerB
D.use ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES in the policy file list and put /data in the exclude_list file for ServerB
ANSWER: D

certification Symantec   250-421   certification 250-421   certification 250-421

NO.19 NetBackup Vault is being used to duplicate backups in an environment where there are only two tape
drives.
How many additional tape drives are needed to keep a single tape drive failure from being a single point
of failure?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
ANSWER: A

Symantec   250-421   certification 250-421   250-421

NO.20 You have a Microsoft Windows 2003 client, which you want to add to the NetBackup domain. You do
not use VSP or NetBackup database options (for example, MSSQL, Exchange, Oracle, and so on) on this
client.
What would be the impact to downtime?
A.There will be two reboots required: one reboot to load the VERITAS installer and one reboot for
NetBackup installation.
B.There is no need for a reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed.
C.There will be one reboot to load the VERITAS installer, but NetBackup will not require a separate reboot.
D.There will be a need for one reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed.
ANSWER: B

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Code d'Examen: 156-315.65
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Expert NGX R65)
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 Choose all correct statements. SmartUpdate, located on a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server, allows
you to:
(1) Remotely perform a first time installation of VPN-1 NGX on a new machine
(2) Determine OS patch levels on remote machines
(3) Update installed Check Point and any OPSEC certified software remotely
(4) Update installed Check Point software remotely
(5) Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products
(6) Centrally manage licenses
A. 4, 5, & 6
B. 2, 4, 5, & 6
C. 1 & 4
D. 1, 3, 4, & 6
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65

NO.2 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A. VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
B. VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
C. VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
D. None, all versions require a license upgrade
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.3 Your current VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 stand-alone VPN-1 Pro Gateway and
SmartCenter Server runs on SecurePlatform. You plan to implement VPN-1 NGX R65 in a distributed
environment, where the new machine will be the SmartCenter Server, and the existing machine will be the
VPN-1 Pro Gateway only. You need to migrate the NG with AI R55 SmartCenter Server configuration,
including licensing.
How do you handle licensing for this NGX R65 upgrade?
A. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new
central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license also licensed to the new SmartCenter Server's IP address.
B. Leave the current license on the gateway to be upgraded during the software upgrade. Purchase a
new license for the VPN-1 NGX R65 SmartCenter Server.
C. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the existing gateway machine's IP address.
Request a new local license for the NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway using the new server's IP address.
D. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new
central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license for the existing gateway server's IP address.
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.4 Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning contract verification?
A. Your contract file is stored on the User Center and fetched by the Gateway as needed.
B. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the SmartCenter Server.
C. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the Gateway.
D. Your contract file is stored on the SmartCenter Server and downloaded to the Security Gateway.
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.5 What port is used for communication to the UserCenter with SmartUpdate?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. TCP 8080
D. CPMI
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.6 What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. Get all Gateway Data
B. Reboot gateway
C. Preinstall verifier
D. Fetch sync status
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.7 Why should the upgrade_export configuration file (.tgz) be deleted after you complete the import
process?
A. It will prevent a future successful upgrade_export since the .tgz file cannot be overwritten.
B. It will conflict with any future upgrades run from SmartUpdate.
C. SmartUpdate will start a new installation process if the machine is rebooted.
D. It contains your security configuration, which could be exploited.
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.8 You plan to migrate an NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 SmartCenter Server on Windows to
VPN-1 NGX R65. You also plan to upgrade four VPN-1 Pro Gateways at remote offices, and one local
VPN-1 Pro Gateway at your company's headquarters. The SmartCenter Server configuration must be
migrated. What is the correct procedure to migrate the configuration?
A. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD on the SmartCenter Server, select "Upgrade".
2. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
3. Reinstall all gateways using NGX R65 and install a policy.
B. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD in the SmartCenter Server, select "Export".
2. Install VPN-1 NGX R65 on a new PC using the option "Installation using imported configuration"
3. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
4. Upgrade software on all five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
C. 1. Copy the $FWDIR\conf directory from the SmartCenter Server.
2. Save directory contents to another file server.
3. Uninstall the SmartCenter Server, and install a new SmartCenter Server.
4. Move the saved directory contents to $FWDIR\conf replacing the default installation files.
5. Reinstall all gateways using VPN-1 NGX R65 and install a Security Policy.
D. 1. Upgrade the five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
2. Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, using the NGX R65 CD.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   certification 156-315.65

NO.9 What tools CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. cpinfo
B. SecurePlatform Web UI
C. Nokia Voyager
D. snapshot
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65

NO.10 You are running the license_upgrade tool on your SecurePlatform Gateway. Which of the following
can you NOT do with the upgrade tool?
A. Simulate the license-upgrade process.
B. View the licenses in the SmartUpdate License Repository.
C. Perform the actual license-upgrade process.
D. View the status of currently installed licenses.
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65 examen

NO.11 What physical machine must have access to the UserCenter public IP when checking for new
packages with SmartUpdate?
A. VPN-1 Security Gateway getting the new upgrade package
B. SmartUpdate installed SmartCenter Server PC
C. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
D. SmartUpdate GUI PC
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65

NO.12 You are using SmartUpdate to fetch data and perform a remote upgrade of an NGX Security Gateway.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. If SmartDashboard is open during package upload and upgrade, the upgrade will fail.
B. A remote installation can be performed without the SVN Foundation package installed on a remote NG
with Application Intelligence Security Gateway
C. SmartUpdate can query the SmartCenter Server and VPN-1 Gateway for product information
D. SmartUpdate can query license information running locally on the VPN-1 Gateway
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.13 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
A. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he en tir e contents of the CD are copied to the packages
directory on the selected remote Security Gateway.
B. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he en tir e con t en t s o f t he CD a r e cop i ed t o t he Package
Repository on the SmartCenter Server.
C. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he se l ec t ed package i s cop i ed t o t he packages d ir ec t o r y
on the selected remote Security Gateway.
D. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he se l ec t ed package i s cop i ed t o t he Package R epos it o r y
on the SmartCenter Server.
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.14 You are a Security Administrator preparing to deploy a new HFA (Hotfix Accumulator) to ten Security
Gateways at five geographically separated locations. What is the BEST method to implement this HFA?
A. Send a Certified Security Engineer to each site to perform the update
B. Use SmartUpdate to install the packages to each of the Security Gateways remotely
C. Use a SSH connection to SCP the HFA to each Security Gateway. Once copied locally, initiate a
remote installation command and monitor the installation progress with SmartView Monitor.
D. Send a CDROM with the HFA to each location and have local personnel install it
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   certification 156-315.65

NO.15 You want to upgrade an NG with Application Intelligence R55 Security Gateway running on
SecurePlatform to VPN-1 NGX R65 via SmartUpdate. Which package(s) is(are) needed in the Repository
prior to upgrade?
A. SecurePlatform NGX R65 package
B. VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 package
C. SecurePlatform and VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 packages
D. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Power/UTM packages
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.16 Concerning these products: SecurePlatform, VPN-1 Pro Gateway, UserAuthority Server, Nokia OS,
UTM-1, Eventia Reporter, and Performance Pack, which statement is TRUE?
A. All but the Nokia OS can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
B. All but Performance Pack can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
C. All can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
D. All but the UTM-1 can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   certification 156-315.65

NO.17 What action can be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. remote_uninstall_verifier
B. upgrade_export
C. mds_backup
D. cpinfo
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.18 Which of these components does NOT require a VPN-1 NGX R65 license?
A. SmartConsole
B. Check Point Gateway
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.19 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
A. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he se l ec t ed package i s
copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway but the installation IS
NOT performed.
B. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he S m a rt U pda t e w i za r d
walks the Administrator through a Distributed Installation.
C. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he se l ec t ed package i s
copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway and the installation IS
performed.
D. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay
the selected package is
copied from the CDROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS
performed.
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.20 If a SmartUpdate upgrade or distribution operation fails on SecurePlatfom, how is the system
recovered?
A. SecurePlatform will reboot and automatically revert to the last snapshot version prior to upgrade.
B. The Administrator must remove the rpm packages manually, and reattempt the upgrade.
C. The Administrator can only revert to a previously created snapshot (if there is one) with the command
cprinstall snapshot <object name> <filename>.
D. The Administrator must reinstall the last version via the command cprinstall revert <object name> <file
name>.
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-315.65   certification 156-315.65

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Code d'Examen: 156-215.71
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R71)
Questions et réponses: 563 Q&As

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NO.1 Implied Rules

NO.2 Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A.Asymmetric encryption
B.Symmetric encryption
C.Certificate-based encryption
D.Dynamic encryption
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.71   156-215.71 examen

NO.3 Phase 1 uses________.
A.Conditional
B.Sequential
C.Asymmetric
D.Symmetric
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71   156-215.71   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71 examen   certification 156-215.71

NO.4 IPS Profiles

NO.5 SIC certificates

NO.6 SmartView Tracker traffic logs

NO.7 A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT.Client side NAT is not
checked in the Global Properties.A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server.Assuming
there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the
Web server?
A.Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B.A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C.Nothing else must be configured.
D.A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway's upstream router.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71   156-215.71

NO.8 Security Gateway R71 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the
response below that contains the most complete list of supported services.
A.FTP, HTTP, TELNET
B.FTP, TELNET
C.SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNET
D.SMTP, FTP, TELNET
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.71 examen   certification 156-215.71

NO.9 You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway.After the SIC reset operation is complete, the
policy that will be installed is the
A.Last policy that was installed
B.Default filter
C.Standard policy
D.Initial policy
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-215.71 examen   certification 156-215.71

NO.10 Which type of resource could a Security Administrator use to control access to specific file shares on
target machines?
A.URI
B.CIFS
C.Telnet
D.FTP
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-215.71   156-215.71

NO.11 Manual NAT rules

NO.12 Which port must be allowed to pass through enforcement points in order to allow packet logging to
operate correctly?
A.514
B.256
C.257
D.258
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71 examen

NO.13 An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is:
A.A license can be taken from one Security Management server and given to another Security
Management Server.
B.Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
C.Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
D.The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of security Gateway.Each module s
license has a unique IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A.Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B.Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C.Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D.Using domain objects in rules when possible
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71 examen   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71

NO.15 SmartView Tracker audit logs

NO.16 If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C.six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D.three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71   certification 156-215.71   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71

NO.17 Gateway licenses
A.3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B.5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C.1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D.2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71   156-215.71   156-215.71
3.You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners.Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A.SmartDashboard
B.SmartView Tracker
C.SmartUpdate
D.SmartView Status
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71 examen   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71
4.You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure.You have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed.What backup method could be used to
quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A.Upgrade_export
B.Manual backup
C.Snapshot
D.Backup
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-215.71   certification 156-215.71   certification 156-215.71   certification 156-215.71
5.Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies.Your
manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features.
This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would
you start such a migration?
A.This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified
mode Gateway does not work.
B.You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all
Gateways at the same time.
C.This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.
D.Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then
migrate Gateway per Gateway.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-215.71   156-215.71   certification 156-215.71   certification 156-215.71
6.What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new
packages with smartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate GUI PC
B.SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C.A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package
D.SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-215.71   156-215.71   156-215.71 examen
7.In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A.Blank field under Rule Number
B.Rule 0
C.Cleanup Rule
D.Rule 1
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71   156-215.71
8.The URL Filtering Policy can be configured to monitor URLs in order to:
A.Log sites from blocked categories.
B.Redirect users to a new URL.
C.Block sites only once.
D.Alert the Administrator to block a suspicious site.
Answer: A

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9.The Customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway.This is an Example of a (n):
A.Stand-Alone Installation.
B.Unsupported configuration
C.Distributed Installation
D.Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-215.71   156-215.71 examen   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71 examen
10.You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an
internal Webserver that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address You have an unused valid IP address on
the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router.You control the router that sits between the
external interface of the firewall and the Internet.What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot
be used on your Security Gateway?
A.Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B.Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall s external address.
C.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71 examen
11.The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in global
properties.He managed to lock all of the administrators out of their accounts.How should you unlock these
accounts?
A.Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account, right click on administrator
object and select Unlock.
B.Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Manager server.
C.Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
D.Delete the file admin.lock in the $fwDIR/tmp/ directory of the Security Management server.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71   156-215.71   certification 156-215.71
12.You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host.You decide that you want to block everything
from that whole network, not just the problematic host.You want to block this for an hour while you
investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base.How do you achieve this?
A.Add a °t e m po r a r ¡± rule u si n g Sm a r t D ashbo ard an d s el e c t hi d e ru.
B.Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor
C.Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D.Select block intruder from the tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71   156-215.71   156-215.71   156-215.71
13.The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A.Session and Network layers
B.Application and Presentation layers
C.Physical and Data link layers
D.Network and Data link layers
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71   156-215.71   156-215.71

NO.18 Latency has lost SIC communication with her Security Gateway and she needs to re establish
SIC.What would be the correct order of steps needed to perform this task?
1) Create a new activation key on the Security Gateway, then exit cpconfig.
2) Click the Communication tab on the Security Gateway object, and then click Reset.
3) Run the cpconfig tool, and then select Secure Internal Communication to reset.
4) Input the new activation key in the Security Gateway object, and then click initialize
5) Run the cpconfig tool, then select source Internal Communication to reset.
A.5, 4, 1, 2
B.2, 3, 1, 4
C.2, 5, 1, 4
D.3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71 examen   certification 156-215.71

NO.19 Blocked connections

NO.20 When configuring the network interfaces of a checkpoint Gateway, the direction can be defined as
Internal or external.
What is meaning of interface leading to DMZ?
A.It defines the DMZ Interface since this information is necessary for Content Control.
B.Using restricted Gateways, this option automatically turns off the counting of IP Addresses originating
from this interface
C.When selecting this option.Ann-Spoofing is configured automatically to this net.
D.Activating this option automatically turns this interface to External
Answer: A

CheckPoint   certification 156-215.71   certification 156-215.71   certification 156-215.71

NO.21 Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control?
1) Simplified mode Rule Bases
2) Traditional mode Rule Bases

NO.22 A rule _______ is designed to log and drop all other communication that does not match another rule?
A.Stealth
B.Cleanup
C.Reject
D.Anti-Spoofing
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-215.71   156-215.71

NO.23 Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when:
i) NAT decision is based on the destination port
ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated
iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only
iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A.(i), (ii), and (iii)
B.(i), and (ii)
C.ii) and (iv)
D.only (i)
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71   certification 156-215.71

NO.24 VPN communities

NO.25 Secure Platform WebUI Users

NO.26 You have created a rule Base Firewall, websydney.Now you are going to create a new policy package
with security and address transaction rules for a secured gateway.What is true about the new package s
NAT rules?
A.Rules 1 and 5 will be appear in the new package
B.Rules 1, 3, 4and 5 will appear in the new package
C.Rules 2, 3 and 4 will appear in the new package
D.NAT rules will be empty in the new package
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71   156-215.71

NO.27 Gateway route table

NO.28 What can NOT be selected for VPN tunnel sharing?
A.One tunnel per subnet pair
B.One tunnel per Gateway pair
C.One tunnel per pair of hosts
D.One tunnel per VPN domain pair
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-215.71 examen   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71

NO.29 While in Smart View Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be
an intrusion.He decides to block the traffic for 60 but cannot remember all the steps.What is the correct
order of steps needed to perform this?
1) Select the Active Mode tab In Smart view Tracker
2) Select Tools > Block Intruder
3) Select the Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker
4) Set the Blocking Time out value to 60 minutes
5) Highlight the connection he wishes to block
A.3, 2, 5, 4
B.3, 5, 2, 4
C.1, 5, 2, 4
D.1, 2, 5, 4
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-215.71   156-215.71 examen

NO.30 For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication?
A.HTTPS
B.FTP
C.SSH
D.Telnet
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 156-915.70
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (CCSE-R70-Upgrade)
Questions et réponses: 243 Q&As

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NO.1 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70 examen

NO.2 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing
Unicast
B. Load Balancing
Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-915.70 examen   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70 examen

NO.3 You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the match column does
not have the option to see the directional match. You see the following window. What must you enable to
see the Directional match?
A. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object's VPN tab
B. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced Window, m Global Properties
D. Directional_match (True) in the objects_5_0 file on Security management Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70   156-915.70 examen

NO.4 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70

NO.5 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command
will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70 examen

NO.6 John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator. If he suggests a change in the firewall configuration, he
must submit his proposal to David, a Security manager. One day David is out of the office and john
submits his proposal to peter, surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal the system does not
permit him to do so (See figure below)
Next day David is back and he can carry out this operation.
Both the David and peter have accounts as administrators in the Security management Server and both
have the read/write all permission. What is the reason for the difference? Choose the best answer.
A. There were some hardware/software issues at the Security management Server on the first day.
B. Peter was not log on to system for a long time.
C. The attribute manage administrators was not assigned to peter.
D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/write permissions were assigned to David only.
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70   certification 156-915.70

NO.7 Reporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the following
examples, EXCEPT
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Tracking attempted port scans.
C. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
D. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70 examen   certification 156-915.70

NO.8 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70

NO.9 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70 examen

NO.10 With Eventia Analyzer, what is the analyzer Server's function?
A. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.
B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
C. Displays received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Assign seventy levels to events.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.11 You have selected the event port scan from internal network in Eventia Analyzer , to detect an event
when 30 ports have occurred when 60 seconds. You want to detect two ports scans from a host within 10
seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. You cannot set Eventia Analyzer to detect two port scans within 10 seconds of each other.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as an exception.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70

NO.12 When checkpoint product is used to create and save changes to a Log consolidation policy?
A. Security Management Server
B. Eventia Reporter Client
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. Eventia Reporter Server
Answer: D

CheckPoint   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70

NO.13 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.
B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
C. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
D. VTIs are only supported on Secure Platform.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70 examen   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70 examen

NO.14 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70

NO.15 Which specific R70 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Reporter
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-915.70   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70   certification 156-915.70

NO.16 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions Included with Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event
Analysis R7P?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. As a base for starling and building exclusions
C. To allow Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event Analysis R70 to function property with all other R70 release
devices
D. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition, a scenario that may occur in
deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R70
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.17 The London office just upgraded their DNS Gateway needs with the new settings. What would be the
best way for Henry to change the DNS settings for the London s Gateway?
A. Edit the Canada profile
B. Edit the gateways DNS settings from the edit gateway, then selecting the DNS tab
C. DNS settings for that gateway cannot be changed
D. Edit the Europe profile
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70 examen   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.18 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David
use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915.70 examen   certification 156-915.70   certification 156-915.70

NO.19 Which of the following commands will stop acceleration on a Security Gateway running on Secure
Platform?
A. splat_accel off
B. fwacceX off
C. perf_pack off
D. fwaceel off
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70 examen

NO.20 To change the default port of the Management Portal.
A. Edit the masters, conf file on the Portal server
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin. conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initialize SIC.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.21 The We-Make-Widgets
company has purchased twenty UTM-1 Edge appliances for their remote
offices. Kim decides the best way to manage those appliances is to use SmartProvisioning and create a
profile they can all use. List the order of steps Kim would go through to add the Dallas Edge appliance to
the remote Office profile Using the output below.
A. 6, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2
C. 6, 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70   certification 156-915.70

NO.22 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70

NO.23 Which of the following is not accelerated by SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.24 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic kill Bits protection is sent to inactive. She wants to set the
micro soft Visual Basic Kill bits protection and all other low performance impact protection to prevent. She
asks her manager for approval and he stated she can turn these on. But he Laura to make sure no high
performance impact protections are limited on while changing this setting.
Using the output below, how would Laura change the default-protection on performance impact
protections classified as low from inactive to prevent while still meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with performance impact to
medium or above
B. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to
low or above
C. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to
medium or above
D. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with performance impact to
high or above
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70   156-915.70 examen

NO.25 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra?
A. IPSO 4.9 build 88
B. VMWare ESX
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows server 2007
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70

NO.26 You are Connectra administrator. Your users complain that their outlook Web Access is running
extremely slowly, and their overall browsing experience configures to worsen. You suspect it could be a
logging problem. Which of the following log file does CheckPoint recommended you purge?
A. Httpd*.log
B. Event_ws.log
C. Mod_ws_owd.log
D. Alert_owd.log
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70

NO.27 Which Security Servers can perform authentication tasks, but CANNOT perform content security
tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. HTTP
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.28 Which type of routing relies on a VPN Tunnel interface (VT1) to route traffic?
A. Subnet-based VPN
B. Route-based VPN
C. Host-based VPN
D. Domain-based VPN
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-915.70   156-915.70   certification 156-915.70

NO.29 What is the maximum number of cores supported by CoreXL?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70 examen   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.30 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70 examen   certification 156-915.70

Il y a plusieurs de façons pour réussir le test CheckPoint 156-915.70, vous pouvez travailler dur et dépenser beaucoup d'argents, ou vous pouvez travailler plus efficacement avec moins temps dépensés.