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2014年2月3日星期一

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Code d'Examen: C2090-733
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 Application Developer)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is the DB2 Data Provider for the .NET class that requires a
database connection
to be open?
A. DB2DataSet
B. DB2RecordSet
C. DB2DataReader
D. DB2DataAdapter
Answer: C

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NO.2 An application running against a DB2 for AIX database needs to execute the following
query:SELECT
t2.c2, t1.c3 FROM t1 INNER JOIN t2 ON t1.c1 = t2.c1 If table T1 resides in the DB2 for AIX
database and
table T2 resides in a DB2 for i5/OS database, which of the followingDB2 object types must
the identifier
T2 represent in order for this SQL statement to run successfully?
A. ALIAS
B. NICKNAME
C. SERVER TABLE
D. TABLE WRAPPER
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is a SQL stored procedure which will return a resultset
containing ID, NAME,
DEPT and JOB values out of the STAFF table?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set() LANGUAGE SQL BEGIN SELECT id, name, dept,
job FROM
staff; END
B. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN SELECT
id, name,
dept, job FROM staff; END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR
SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN C1; END
D. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set()
LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN c1; END
Answer: D

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NO.4 A .NET application executes a SQL request invoking the
DB2Command.ExecuteReader method and a
syntax errorexception is thrown. Which of the following properties contains the SQLCode for
this syntax
error?
A. DB2Error.SQLCode
B. SQLError.SQLCode
C. DB2Exception.SQLCode
D. SQLException.SQLCode
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a characteristic of an application that uses a Distributed Unit of
Work
(DUOW)?
A. A single transaction can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
B. Multiple transactions can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
C. A single transaction can read and/or modify data stored across multiple database servers.
D. Multiple transactions can read and/or modify data stored on multiple database servers
provided each
transaction only accesses a single server.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Two OLTP applications run concurrently but frequent locking occurs which requires a
fix to be applied.
Application A inserts rows into the table T1. Application B submits several queries against the
table with a
Cursor Stability isolation level. What would be the best course of action to improve the
system's
concurrency and performance?
A. Application B should be changed to access a view of table T1.
B. Application B should be changed to a Read Stability isolation level.
C. Application A should be changed to perform a commit after each INSERT operation.
D. Application A should be changed to include the NOT WITH HOLD clause on each INSERT
operation.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given the following table and view definitions: CREATE TABLE city ( cityid INT
GENERATED
ALWAYS AS IDENTITY , city_name CHAR(10), state_code CHAR(2) CHECK(state_code IN
('CA','IL','NY','OH','TX')));CREATE VIEW city_view AS ( SELECT city_name||','||state_code
AS fullname
FROM city WHERE state_code NOT IN ('OH','IL')); and the following trigger
definition:CREATE
TRIGGER city_viewInput INSTEAD OF INSERT ON city_view REFERENCING NEW AS
nFOR EACH
ROW MODE DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC DECLARE delim INT;SET delim = LOCATE(',',
n.fullname);
INSERT INTO city(city_name,state_code) VALUES(SUBSTR(n.fullname, 1, delim - 1),
SUBSTR(n.fullname, delim + 1, 2));END; If the following SQL statments are
executed:INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'San Jose','CA') ; INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Chicago,IL');
INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'Detroit','MI'); INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Austin','TX');
INSERT INTO
city_view VALUES('Denver,CO'); How many rows will be returned by the following query:
SELECT *
FROM city
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 Given following table:
EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
=====
==== ======
======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN
D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000
and the following trigger definition:CREATE TRIGGER track_chgsAFTER UPDATE OF
salary, name,
empno ON emp REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE
DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC INSERT INTO changes SELECT empno, CURRENT TIMESTAMP
FROM
ntable; END; After executing the following SQL statements:DELETE FROM changes;
UPDATE emp SET
deptno = 'D98' WHERE deptno = 'D95'; INSERT INTO emp VALUES('0050', 'KEN', 'D90',
35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary - 500 WHERE salary > 35000;UPDATE emp SET salary =
salary +
1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;What value will be returned by this query?SELECT count(*)
FROM
changes
A. 2
B. 3 C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.9 Parameter markers are NOT permitted for which of the following statements?
A. CALL
B. DELETE C. EXECUTE IMMEDIATE
D. SET CURRENT SQLID
Answer: C

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NO.10 Table EMPLOYEE contains the following rows: EMPNO FIRSTNME LASTNAME
WORKDEPT
000010.CHRISTINE HAAS A00 000020 MICHAEL THOMPSON B01 000030 SALLY KWAN
C01 The
isolation level for Application 1 is set to CS and autocommit is disabled. The isolation level for
Application
2 is set to CS and the autocommit is enabled. The following statements are executed in
sequence:
Application 1:
DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee ORDER BY empno OPEN C1
FETCH C1
FETCH C1 Application 2:
UPDATE employee SET lastname = 'MILLFORD' WHERE empno = '000020' Which of the
following
statements is correct?
A. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 2 runs with autocommit enabled so no row
level locks are
necessary for the update.
B. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 1 holds a row level lock that is compatible
with the lock
required by Application 2.
C. The UPDATE fails because Application 1 holds a row level read lock that is in conflict with
the lock
required by Application 2.C.
D. The UPDATE fails because the row level locks held by Application 1 have been escalated
to table lock
so updates by other connections are disallowed.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following ADO .NET providers is supported by IBM DB2 Add-ins for Visual
Studio?
A. OLE DB .NET Data Provider
B. DB2 Data Provider for .NET
C. ODBC Data Provider for .NET
D. DB2 for i5/OS .NET Provider
Answer: B

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NO.12 After executing the following SQL statements: CREATE TABLE tab1 ( col1 INT ,col2
CHAR(1),
PRIMARY KEY(col1)); CREATE TABLE tab2 ( col1 INT ,col2 CHAR(1), FOREIGN KEY
(col1)
REFERENCES tab1(col1) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ); INSERT
INTO tab1
VALUES(1, 'A'); INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES(2, 'B'); INSERT INTO tab2 VALUES(3, 'A');
INSERT INTO
tab2 VALUES(2, 'B'); UPDATE tab1 SET col1 = col1 + 1;DELETE FROM tab1 WHERE col2
= 'B';
What values will be returned by the following SQL query?SELECT col1, col2 FROM tab1
A.COL1 COL2
==== ==== 2 'B'
A. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'B'
B. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A'
C. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 1 'A' 2 'B'
D. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A' 3 'B'
Answer: B

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NO.13 Given the following table definition:CREATE TABLE staff ( id SMALLINT NOT NULL,
name
VARCHAR(9), dept SMALLINT, job CHAR(5)) Assuming that the following statements
execute
successfully:Dim cmdStaff As DB2Command = cnDb2.CreateCommand()
cmdStaff.CommandText =
"SELECT name FROM staff WHERE (job = @job)" Which of the following is the correct way
to provide a
value for the parameter marker used?
A. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", CType(5, Char))
B. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", DB2Type.Char, 5)
C. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", CType(5, Char))
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
D. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", DB2Type.Char, 5)
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value ="Mgr"
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following SQL statements demonstrates the correct usage of a
parameter marker?
A. SELECT ? FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
B. SELECT [] FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
C. SELECT CAST(? AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
D. SELECT CAST([] AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
Answer: C

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NO.15 If the following code is executed in the order shown:conDB2 As
DB2ConnectionconDB2.ConnectionString =
"Database=samplelx;UID=db2user;PWD=db2pwd;"conDB2.Open() Which of the following
statements is
correct?
A. An exception is thrown because the server name has not been specified.
B. An exception is thrown because the server name and the port have not been specified.
C. The execution is successful provided the host name SAMPLEX has been previously
defined in the
local hosts table.
D. The execution is successful provided the database alias SAMPLEX has been previously
defined in the
local database catalog.
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is the minimum privilege required to run a User Defined Function (UDF)?
A. CALL
B. EXECUTE
C. SYSCTRL
D. SYSMAINT
Answer: B

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NO.17 After installing the DB2 Express-C 9 it was discovered that the Development
Workbench was not
available. What
was the reason for that?
A. It must be installed separately.
B. It is not supported with DB2 Express-C 9.
C. Since it is a licensed tool, it must be purchased from IBM.
D. Review the DB2 installation log for errors. Reinstall DB2 Express-C 9.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following restrictions pertains to embedded SQL external routines?
A. Environment variables with names that start with 'DB2' are not allowed.
B. Executing statements or commands that are connection related is not allowed.
C. Environment variable values that were set before the DB2 database manager is started
are not
available.
D. When returning result sets from external nested stored procedures, a cursor cannot be
opened with
the same name onmultiple nesting levels.
Answer: B

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NO.19 An SQL procedure has been developed with several inline SQL PL statements
encapsulated in a
dynamic compound SQL statement. The procedure had been tested and performed well.
After making a
change to the last SQL statement the procedure not only failed to complete, but did not
produce output
from any statements which were not modified. What is the best explanation for this behavior?
A. The dynamic compound SQL is atomic.
B. The procedure doesn't have any savepoints.
C. The procedure has not been correctly re-cataloged.
D. The dynamic compound SQL individual statements are logically dependent on each other.
Answer: A

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NO.20 A table named ACTIVITY.LOG was created by executing the following
statement:CREATE TABLE
activity.log (event VARCHAR(128), date DATE) Then, a stored procedure named
ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT
was created by executing the following statement: CREATE PROCEDURE
activity.logEvent(IN stmtType
CHAR(1)) LANGUAGE SQLMainBody: BEGIN DECLARE sqlerrm VARCHAR(256)
DEFAULT '';
DECLARE ErrorIndicator CHAR(1) DEFAULT 'N';
SQLStmt: BEGIN
DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION
BEGIN
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END;
IF stmtType = 'I' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Insert Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'U' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Update Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'D' THEN I
NSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Delete Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSE
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END IF;
END SQLStmt;
IF ErrorIndicator = 'Y' THEN
SIGNAL SQLSTATE '70000' SET message_text = 'Could not update activity log.';
END IF;
END MainBody
User USER1 has the authority to access/manipulate data in the ACTIVITY.LOG table as well
as to invoke
the
procedure ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT. If user USER1 executes the following commands:
CONNECT TO sample USER user1 USING ibmdb2;
DELETE FROM activity.log;
CALL activity.logEvent('i'); What will be the results?
A. The string "Insert Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the
ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
B. The string "Update Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the
ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
C. The string "Delete Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the
ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
D. The error message 'SQL0438N Application raised error with diagnostic text: "Could not
update activity
log.".SQLSTATE=70000' will be generated.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: A2090-735
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: DB2 9.5 SQL Procedure Developer)
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement can be used to define an array of 30 names that have a maximum
size of 25
characters each?
A. CREATE TYPE names AS VARCHAR(25) ARRAY[30];
B. CREATE ARRAY names[30] VARCHAR(25);
C. CREATE TYPE names[30] VARCHAR(25);
D. CREATE ARRAY names AS VARCHAR(25);
Answer: A

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NO.2 Given the SQL statement shown below:DECLARE test CURSOR FOR SELECT
hiredate FROM
employee FOR UPDATE; Which statement correctly describes the cursor that is created?
A. The cursor will be considered a read-only cursor.
B. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned updates.
C. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned deletes.
D. The cursor can be used to perform positioned updates and deletes.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing
a DECLARE
GLOBALTEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?
A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C

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NO.4 hich steps must be followed to return a result set from an SQL procedure?
A. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Close the cursor.
5.Return to the application.
B. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the WITH RETURN clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
C. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
D. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4. Close the cursor.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two valid DECLARE statements in an SQL procedure? (Choose two.)
A. DECLARE var1 INTEGER;
B. DECLARE var1 DECIMAL [9];
C. DECLARE var1 XML;
D. DECLARE var1 CURRENT DATE;
E. DECLARE var1[10] INTEGER;
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Given the statements shown below: DECLARE c_dept CURSOR WITH HOLD FOR
SELECT * FROM
dept; OPEN c_dept;Which two conditions are true? (Choose two.)
A. C_DEPT will remain open after a ROLLBACK.
B. C_DEPT will remain open after a COMMIT.
C. C_DEPT will be returned to the caller of the routine.
D. C_DEPT will be positioned before the next logical row.
E. All locks held by C_DEPT will be released after a COMMIT.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Given the statement shown below:SELECT ROW CHANGE TOKEN FOR dept,
RID_BIT (dept) FROM
dept WHERE deptno = 'A00' WITH URWhich two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The statement is selecting two columns from DEPT table.
B. The statement will allow the latest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
C. The statement will allow the earliest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
D. The statement will return a TIMESTAMP value.
E. The statement uses optimistic locking.
Answer: BE

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NO.8 What will be the initial value of V_MAX in the declaration statement shown
below?DECLARE v_max
DECIMAL(9,2);
A. 0.0
B. 2
C. 9
D. NULL
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement should be used to declare an array with at most 10 elements of type
INTEGER?
A. DECLARE sub_total INTEGER[10];
B. DECLARE sub_total[10] INTEGER;
C. CREATE TYPE sub_total AS INTEGER[10];
D. CREATE TYPE sub_total[10] AS INTEGER;
Answer: C

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NO.10 hich statement can be used to declare a variable inside an SQL procedure that can be
used to
represent a monetary value?
A. DECLARE v_money MONEY;
B. DECLARE v_money DOUBLE;
C. DECLARE v_money DECIMAL(9,2);
D. DECLARE v_money CURRENCY;
Answer: C

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2014年2月1日星期六

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NO.1 Which command registers new MIBs in HP SIM?
A. mxmib -a
B. mxmib -1
C. mcompile -a
D. mcompile -1
Answer: A

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NO.2 HP Sygate Security Agent is installed and enabled on the access devicE. Which application and port
exception is required to enable the HP SAM Web client to communicate to available resources?
A. MstsC. exe:3389
B. IExplorE. exe:3389
C. DaesvC. exe:47777
D. HPrdcw32.exe:3389
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two HP PC Blade Switch features are used to provide redundant network connectivity? (Select
two.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Link Aggregation Protocol
C. Hot Standby Router Protocol
D. Split Multi-Link Trunk Protocol
E. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Which directory service is fully supported in CCI?
A. Novell eDirectory
B. Microsoft Active Directory (AD)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. HP OpenView Directory Service
Answer: B

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NO.5 How do you configure the HP PC Blade Enclosure IA and HP PC Blade Switch to send alerts to the
HP System Insight Manager Console (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. configure HP System Insight Manager WBEM settings to include the IP addresses of the Integrated
Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
B. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch to use an IP address in the same subnet
as the HP System Insight Manager Server
C. configure HP System Insight Manager System Automatic Discovery Ping range to include the IP
ranges of the Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
D. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch SNMP community string and destination
IP address to match the HP System Insight Manager Server
Answer: CD

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NO.6 CCI redefines the traditional networked desktop PC into three tiers. What are those three tiers?
A. network, storage and security
B. access, compute and resource
C. user, administrative and network
D. monitor, motherboard and keyboard
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has just installed and configured a complete HP CCI environment using HP SAM. When
the client attempts to connect to a known available resource from the SAM client on his local PC, he
receives a message that no resources are availablE. Upon further investigation, the SAM administrator
notices all resources in a given role go offline when users attempt to connect to that rolE.
What should the administrator do?
A. Verify that the SAM Web server is configured using failover.
B. Verify that there is a firewall exception for the SAM Registration ServicE.
C. Verify that there is a port exception for the client service port on the local PC.
D. Verify that the Remote Desktop Protocol is enabled on the blade and the user is granted access.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which version of RGS may CCI users deploy?
A. RHEL 4.0
B. PC Edition
C. Enterprise Edition
D. Windows Vista Edition
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which command compiles a MIB for HP SIM?
A. compile
B. mcompile
C. mxmib -c
D. mcompile
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which ports carry SNMP traffic in a standard environment or configuration? (Select two.)
A. 21
B. 22
C. 161
D. 162
E. 1433
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Which additional members are recommended to be added to the HP SAM Administrator access list?
(Select two.)
A. security group
B. service account
C. individual name(s)
D. domain administrator
E. local SAM server administrator
Answer: AC

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NO.12 HP SIM displays a system type of Unknown. What are possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The wrong version of HP SIM Client is installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 80 and 8080.
D. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 161 and 162.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
Answer: DE

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NO.13 HP SIM displays a system type of UnmanageD. What are the possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The HP SIM Client is not installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block port 1433.
D. Community strings settings on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
aged system.
Answer: DE

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NO.14 The CCI end users experience can be negatively impacted by network latency. At which point does
latency become typically unacceptable?
A. 1 to 100 ms
B. 100 to 200 ms
C. 200 to 250 ms
D. above 250 ms
Answer: C

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NO.15 In the CCI solution, what types of data travels between the client access device and the blade PC?
(Select two.)
A. encrypted keyboard and mouse input
B. hardware-encrypted streaming media
C. compressed screen images and audio
D. raw screen images and bi-directional audio
E. application streaming with interactive content
Answer: AC

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NO.16 By design, which benefit does the CCI solution provide over a traditional PC?
A. improved resource security
B. improved off-line experience
C. increased total cost of ownership
D. improved video streaming performance
Answer: A

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NO.17 CCI users are unable to save their documents to a NAS. After checking the Active Directory setup, you
verify that all users have been placed in the proper OU, named CCIUsers, and the associated group
policy is properly redirecting the users' folders.
However, when any attempt is made to save a document, an Access Denied error is receiveD. Checking
the folder that the file should be saved to, you notice one of the NTFS permissions is incorrect, thereby
preventing the document from being saveD.
Which of the following permissions would allow CCI users to save their documents?
A. DesktopUsers: Allow List Folder Contents; This folder
B. SYSTEM: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
C. Administrators: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
D. CCIUsers: Allow Read & Execute; This folder, subfolders and files
Answer: B

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NO.18 How does CCI enable Business Continuity for end users? (Select two.)
A. Blade PCs consume only about 25-40 watts per blade; this power savings is a benefit to data center
managers responsible for the budget.
B. CCI enables image replacement and rebalancing, so all blade PC users will have the same network
performance no matter where they login from.
C. CCI makes full use of the Active Directory schema; therefore, users are always guaranteed to be
directed to the same blade PC regardless of what location they login from.
D. CCI uses Microsofts free Remote Desktop Connection (RDC) software, so end users can install it on
their personal computer to access their blade PC.
E. CCI blade PCs are distributed, so if power is lost to one enclosure, rack or data center, users can
quickly be reallocated to blade PCs in another enclosure, rack, or data center.
Answer: DE

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NO.19 When comparing a traditional PC environment to a "dynamic" implementation of HP's CCI solution in
which the end users are using thin clients as access devices, how is CCI different?
A. A blade PC can do a better job of rendering full-screen, full-motion video files than a desktop PC.
B. Routers on a public network are bi-directional, enabling the CCI solution to take advantage of
retroactive time stamping of all data transmissions.
C. Even if the access device is stolen or destroyed, an end user can quickly log back on from any
networked location and access his applications and data files.
D. Data files are stored on the access device in a dynamic implementation of CCI. However, they are
erased when the thin client is power cycled or rebooted, so the data is safE.
Answer: C

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NO.20 During installation of the HP SAM Web server, which account type does HP recommend to use as the
owner of the HP SAM Web site?
A. user account
B. service account
C. local administrator account
D. domain guest account
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A03
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences)
Questions et réponses: 197 Q&As

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NO.1 Which HP-UX 11i v3 command allows SCSI device management and diagnoses?
A. ioinit
B. iofind
C. scsiutil
D. scsimgr
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which benefit does the Cluster File System (CFS) feature of the Serviceguard Storage Management
Suite provide?
A. application failover from the active to standby server
B. file system failover from the active to standby server
C. load balancing across multiple paths from server to disk
D. multiple servers can concurrently read/write to the same file system
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the major advantages of the new Mass Storage Stack of HP-UX 11i v3 compared to
previous HP-UX versions? (Select two.)
A. transparent I/O path switch in failure cases
B. Locked Device Special Files to physical hardware path or LUN
C. Agile device files based on LUN world wide ID (WWID) addressing
D. significantly larger number of devices can be connected to a single system
E. moving devices to a different FC switch port requires manual intervention during LVM configuration
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which new features of HP-UX 11i v3 potentially increase the overall I/O performance compared to
previous releases of HP-UX 11i? (Select two.)
A. Native Multi-Pathing
B. sx2000 chipset support
C. Agile device addressing
D. Unified File Cache (UFC)
E. Persistent Device Special Files
Answer: AD

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NO.5 You want to create a mirror of a logical volume using two controllers. Which configuration file is used
to accomplish this?
A. /etc/lvmrc
B. /etc/lvmtab
C. /etc/lvmpvg
D. /etc/dualcontroller
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which feature is new to 11i v3 and is only available on Integrity servers?
A. NUMA
B. ccNUMA
C. concurrent dumps
D. single CPU per socket
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does the Oracle Disk Manager provide?
A. data migration from HP9000 to HP Integrity
B. online volume expansion for additional storage space
C. near raw performance for managing your file system data
D. a graphical user interface to monitor, administer and configure the database
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which options are available on an rx6600 running HP-UX 11i v2 with a PCI-e backplane and P400
PCI-e RAID controller? (Select two.)
A. RAID 1 only
B. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID ADG
C. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 1+0
D. configuration of RAID sets via the scsimgr command
E. configuration of RAID sets via the Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
Answer: BE

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NO.9 You are planning to use 200 VGs in your system. What needs to be done to create the VGs on HP-UX
11i v3?
A. Create the VGs as needed.
B. Change the maxvgs kernel parameter.
C. Change the maxvgs kernel parameter, compile the kernel and reboot.
D. Create the group file using the major number 64 and minor number 0x200000.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have expanded an existing LUN in your EVA storage. The LUN belongs to an HP-UX 11i v3 LVM
volume group (VG). You want to expand the volume group to reflect the new LUN size. What is the most
efficient way to accomplish this?
A. You cannot expand a physical volume when using LVM.
B. Create another physical volume and extend your current VG.
C. Backup, remove, create and restore the data to reflect the new size.
D. Use the vgmodify command to change the physical volume attributes.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which volume manager is integrated with the Serviceguard Cluster File System (CFS) for HP-UX?
A. Mirrordisk/UX
B. Veritas Volume Replicator
C. TruCluster Volume Manager
D. Veritas Volume Manager/Cluster Volume Manager
E. Logical Volume Manager/Shared Logical Volume Manager
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which features are enabled by the HP-UX WBEM (Web-Based Enterprise Management) provider
instrumentation? (Select three.)
A. HP-UX Software Assistant capabilities
B. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) inventory reports
C. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) user configuration
D. Management processor display of health of the server it is managing
E. HP Systems Management Homepage (SMH) display of component health
F. HP SIM and SMH display of system health and properties G. HP System Management Homepage
(SMH) configuration snapshots and inventory reports
Answer: BEF

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NO.13 Which vPar feature is new on HP-UX 11i v3?
A. shared I/O
B. CPU granularity
C. dynamic migration of I/O
D. dynamic migration of memory
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer wants to migrate to HP-UX 11i v3. The customer has several HP 9000 and Integrity
systems to test on. Which options or systems will support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. L3000 currently running HP-UX 11i v2
B. BL60p currently running HP-UX 11i v2
C. rp3410 currently running HP-UX 11i v2
D. vPar (version A.03.x) on HP 9000 Superdome running HP-UX 11i v1
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Which LVM command allows dynamic size expansion of LUNs?
A. vgmove
B. vgmodify
C. vgextend
D. vgchange
Answer: B

HP   HP0-A03   HP0-A03

NO.16 Which benefits do Concurrent Crash Dumps provide to Integrity servers running HP-UX 11i v3? (Select
three.)
A. faster crash dump
B. parallel dump units
C. vertical dump units
D. slower crash dump
E. multiple processors
F. no rebooting required
Answer: ABE

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NO.17 Which Serviceguard Storage Management Suite feature allows you to set policies that segment
company data based on various characteristics?
A. Flashsnap
B. Storage Mapping
C. Storage Checkpoints
D. Dynamic Multi-Pathing
E. Dynamic Storage Tiers
Answer: E

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NO.18 What are the key benefits of the 11i v3 Mass Storage Stack? (Select four.)
A. improved security capabilities
B. dramatic I/O performance improvements
C. simplified management and automatic configuration
D. increased scalability (connect up to 16 million devices)
E. choice of load balancing algorithms for native multi-pathing
F. out-of-the-box support for third party active/passive storage arrays
Answer: BCDE

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NO.19 Identify the characteristics of the Memory File System (MemFS). (Select two.)
A. based on the HFS filesystem
B. based on the VxFS filesystem
C. supports files and filesystems as large as 2 TB
D. swaps data to swap space when the system is under memory pressure
E. data in MemFS filesystem remains persistent after unmounts and reboots
Answer: AD

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NO.20 What are the benefits of the Serviceguard Storage Management Suite on HP-UX 11i v3? (Select
three.)
A. enables Oracle ASM to run within a file system
B. maintains service levels through the integration with VSE
C. offers tighter integration of Veritas Cluster Server on HP-UX
D. allows for heterogeneous platform support with a single solution
E. enables Oracle RAC customers to get the manageability of a file system
F. provides a single storage management solution to manage all applications
Answer: BEF

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Code d'Examen: HP0-144
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure WAN)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for
an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection?
A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet
B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface
C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions
D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables.
B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router.
C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a
backup connection with an unauthenticated peer?
A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes
down.
B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface.
C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface.
D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model?
A. packet-filtering firewall
B. circuit-level gateway
C. application-level gateway
D. stateful-inspection firewall
Answer: D

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NO.5 Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric
DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router
and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection?
A. ADSL monitor
B. showtime monitor
C. phase 1 monitor
D. training monitor
Answer: D

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NO.6 The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate?
A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured.
B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection.
C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection.
D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric
Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?
A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP
interface.
B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface.
C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual
interfaces.
D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO.
A. custom queuing
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. generic traffic shaping (GTS)
E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS)
Answer: BC

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NO.9 When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of
training mode?
A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line.
B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the
public carrier.
C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available.
D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working
correctly.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router
7102dl does not?
A. built-in encryption module
B. support for redundant power source (RPS)
C. one additional Ethernet port
D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines
Answer: B

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NO.11 How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. unlimited number
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO.
A. BRI interface
B. ADSL interface
C. ATM subinterface
D. Ethernet interface
E. Frame Relay interface
F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface
Answer: CD

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who
initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this
use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO.
A. Configure routers at remote sites.
B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory.
C. Enter bootstrap mode.
D. Back up configuration files.
E. Enable IPSec security.
F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format.
Answer: AD

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NO.15 You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's
Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and
maintain the backup connection?
A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface
B. a backup Frame Relay interface
C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface
D. a backup BRI ISDN interface
Answer: C

HP examen   certification HP0-144   HP0-144   certification HP0-144   certification HP0-144   HP0-144 examen

NO.16 Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform?
A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection.
B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers.
C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network.
D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B
B. T1 or E1 connections
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection
Answer: C

certification HP   HP0-144   HP0-144

NO.18 Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode?
A. the get command
B. the go command
C. the nomode command
D. the do command
Answer: D

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NO.19 The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
problem?
A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service
provider.
B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider.
C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high.
D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface?
Select TWO.
A. Enable the ftp server.
B. Enable the http server.
C. Configure a Telnet password.
D. Configure an enable mode password.
E. Configure a username and password.
F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic.
Answer: BE

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Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 187 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the correct statement about zoning in an interoperable fabric?
A.WWPN zoning is the only allowed method.
B.A mixture of domain ID, port number and WWPN zoning is allowed.
C.Domain ID and port number zoning are the only allowed methods.
D.Zoning is not allowed. The only way to segment a fabric is using the VSAN technology of C-Series
switches.
Correct:A

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NO.2 In a single fabric, when multiple paths exist between a host and its storage, which statement is
true?
A.The result could be an unstable fabric.
B.Load sharing is automatically set to static.
C.The FSPF protocol determines best route.
D.The path used is determined by port priority.
Correct:C

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NO.3 What is a Fibre Channel fabric?
A.one or more switches connected together, sharing the same name and routing table
B.two or more switches connected together, sharing the same name and routing table
C.one or more switches connected together, each having its own independent name and routing table
D.two or more switches connected together, each having its own independent name and routing table
Correct:A

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NO.4 What are HP SAN management strategies? (Choose two.)
A.automated policy based management
B.policy based backup using the storage management appliance
C.automatic performance optimization using sophisticated high performance management agents
D.storage virtualization using in-band management functionality of the storage management appliance
E.simplified, centralized storage management using standardized web based GUIs residing on a storage
management appliance
Correct:A E

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NO.5 What can you do to minimize communication delays between a host and its storage subsystem?
A.cross couple multiple ISLs
B.ensure there is at least one switch hop
C.connect the two devices to the same switch
D.configure a maximum of four active host ports per ISL
Correct:C

certification HP   certification HP0-841   HP0-841

NO.6 The sum of the wait time (in queues) and the service time is _____.
A.data rate
B.request rate
C.response time
D.utilization time
Correct:C

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NO.7 Which statement applies to trunking on B-Series switches?
A.Oversubsciption is impossible with trunking.
B.If one ISL of a trunk fails, the whole trunk fails.
C.Trunking increases the availability because an I/O is not interrupted, even if the master ISL of a trunk
fails.
D.Trunking is more effecient than individual ISLs because it is less probable that congestion will be
experienced.
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which three operating systems are supported in an HP heterogeneous SAN? (Choose three.)
A.HP NSK
B.IBM AIX
C.IBM OS400
D.Tru64 UNIX
E.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
Correct:B D E

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NO.9 Which three infrastructure components are supported from multiple vendors in an HP Open
heterogenous SAN? (Choose three.)
A.hubs
B.switches
C.ATM gateways
D.storage systems
E.operating systems
Correct:B D E

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NO.10 What is throughput?
A.the number of requests processed per second
B.the number of I/O requests satisfied per unit of time
C.the amount of time a device needs to process a request
D.the time a device takes to process a request from issuance to completion
Correct:B

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NO.11 What are the three types of fabric zoning on B-series switches? (Choose three.)
A.static zoning
B.software zoning
C.hardware zoning
D.mixmode zoning
E.QuickLoop zoning
Correct:B C D

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NO.12 What is the maximum distance per cable segment using 9/125 micron single-mode cable and
long wavelength 2 Gb SFPs?
A.1 km
B.5 km
C.10 km
D.35 km
E.100 km
Correct:C

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NO.13 In the SAN configuration, assume a goal of redundancy for everything. How many Storage
Management Appliances are needed?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.6
Correct:B

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NO.14 Which HP SAN Management tool is a highly scalable, Java-based application that manages
multiple B-Series switches and fabrics in real-time?
A.HP StorageWorks Fabric Manager
B.Management Appliance Software v2.1
C.HP OpenView Storage Node Manager
D.HP StorageWorks High Availability Fabric Manager (HAFM)
E.HP OpenView Storage Management Appliance III and HP OpenView Storage Management Appliance
software v2.1
Correct:A

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NO.15 Three LUNs, sda, sdb and sdc, are connected to a Linux server. You shutdown the server and
physically remove sdb. What happens after the server reboots?
A.The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is not listed in the device scan.
B.The LUN sda is accessible, LUN sdc is now sdb and accessible using this name.
C.The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is listed as offline in the device scan.
D.The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is renamed into sdvb simulating a virtual device.
Correct:B

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NO.16 Which software module of HP OpenView Storage Area Manager (SAM) can you use to control
the access of a managed host to a managed storage device?
A.Storage Builder
B.Storage Allocater
C.Storage Accountant
D.Storage Node Manager
Correct:B

certification HP   certification HP0-841   HP0-841

NO.17 A company is running an application that is READ intensive. They are more concerned with
effective READ performance than WRITE performance. They have a limited number of disks so
they need to minimize RAID overhead. What type of RAID should they use?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 1+0
D.RAID 5
Correct:D

certification HP   certification HP0-841   HP0-841

NO.18 In Web Tools, which is a valid switch state?
A.down
B.marginal
C.segmented
D.reconfiguring
Correct:A

certification HP   certification HP0-841   HP0-841

NO.19 What characteristic has the greatest impact on disk performance?
A.bus type
B.drive latency
C.I/O transfer size
D.upgrade from a 1Gb/s HBA to a 2Gb/s HBA
Correct:B

certification HP   certification HP0-841   HP0-841

NO.20 What is the internal M-series switch latency of a HP Fibre Channel switch?
A.between 1us and 2us maximum
B.3us
C.5us
D.33us
E.650us
Correct:A

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Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. Time-Sync Wizard
B. CLI Wizard
C. IP Address Wizard
D. Configuration Wizard
E. Switch Update Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.2 All of the ports that will be included in a newly developed mesh of four ProCurve 3500yl Series
switches are configured for membership in customer VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the
VLAN configuration?
A. The mesh ports will only be able to retain membership in a single untagged VLAN.
B. The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
C. The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
D. The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until the VLAN assignments are manually
configured.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. web interface
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. ProCurve Manager interface
Answer: AC

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NO.4 A customer that is installing several ProCurve 3500yl switches asks about the Link Layer Discovery
Protocol (LLDP) support capabilities on these switches. Which statement is true about LLDP operation?
A. It is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. The ports placed in Blocked state by Spanning Tree Protocol prevent LLDP messages from being
transmitted.
D. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system name and MAC address of neighbors.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When an IT manager of ProCurve University is configuring a ProCurve switch using the CLI, what is
indicated by the command prompt Switch_1A#?
A. The switch is located on floor 1, building A.
B. Host name for the switch has not been defined.
C. Current context is the global configuration level.
D. Current context is the manager level.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select three.)
A. security
B. availability
C. convergence
D. reliability
E. upgradeability
F. mobility
G. cost-effectiveness
Answer: ACF

HP examen   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20

NO.7 An IT administrator enters the show flash command on a ProCurve switch. What will this command
display?
A. the configurations on the switch
B. the current version of software running
C. the configuration available in memory
D. a list of all software versions stored on the switch
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer inquires about configuring the IP address on a new ProCurve 3500yl switch. What can you
do to configure this information on the switch? (Select two.)
A. Connect to the switch using the Telnet interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign a
box-wide IP address.
B. Leave the switch at its factory default settings and allow it to acquire an IP address, mask, and default
gateway from a DHCP server.
C. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and
assign a box-wide IP address and mask.
D. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, enable
DHCP, and assign an address scope.
E. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign
an IP address and mask within the context of the VLAN used for management access .
Answer: BE

HP   certification HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20

NO.9 Which statement is true about mesh switches configured with Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
connected to non-meshed switches in the same spanning tree domain?
A. The mesh switches appear as a set of multiple blade switch units to the non-mesh switches.
B. The mesh switches cannot join a non-mesh topology even if all switches support Spanning Tree
Protocol.
C. A mesh topology appears as a normal cascaded topology with ports blocked by the Spanning Tree
Protocol services.
D. The mesh switches appear as a single logical switch to non-meshed switches.
Answer: D

HP   certification HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20 examen

NO.10 In a ProCurve Switch 5300xl, you change the following using the CLI:
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# configure
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password manager
New password for Manager: *********
Please retype new password for Manager: ********
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password operator
New password for Operator: *********
Please retype new password for Operator: *********
The new password for Manager is HPinvent# and the new password for Operator is hpINVENT!
Which login name and password are needed for the web interface if the administrator requires read/write
access? (Select two.)
A. Manager
B. hpINVENT!
C. HPinvent#
D. Operator
Answer: AC

HP   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20

NO.11 Which command must be entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch to ensure recent configuration
changes will not be lost when the switch is restarted?
A. write memory
B. save config
C. save flash -overwrite
D. commit change
E. write flash -overwrite
Answer: A

HP   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20

NO.12 The IT manager of a medium-sized retail store is configuring a wireless network. As a first step in
securing the wireless network, the manager decides to enable the Closed system parameter on each of
the ProCurve Access Point 530 devices. What is the main difference between Open and Closed wireless
networks?
A. In an Open system, the SSID is advertised to clients; in a Closed system the SSID it is not advertised.
B. A Closed system requires the client's wireless MAC address be configured on the access point; an
Open system does not require MAC authentication.
C. A Closed system requires the client to have a pre-shared key; an Open system does not require a
pre-shared key.
D. An Open system requires the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication; a Closed system does not
require the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What information, normally associated with the wireless network name, is required by the wireless
clients in order to establish connections to the access point?
A. pre-shared key
B. Independent Basic Service Set
C. Service Set Identifier
D. shared secret
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are configuring spanning tree on ProCurve switches at a customer site. Why would you configure
a particular switch to have a higher bridge priority? (Select two.)
A. to force all of the switch's ports to be blocked
B. to make it less likely that the switch's ports will be blocked
C. to cause the switch to remove BPDUs from the network
D. to make it more likely that the switch will become the root
E. to increase the path cost of all switch links
Answer: BD

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NO.15 An existing 1000Base-T link between two ProCurve 5406zl switches at a small university is configured
as a member of the faculty VLAN. After the IT manager configured a four-port trunk between the switches,
members of the college's faculty reported that they can no longer access servers that were available
before the trunk was installed. Which statement describes a likely solution for this problem?
A. A new link must be configured for the VLAN because the maximum number of VLANs that the port
trunk can support has been exceeded.
B. The port trunk must be configured for tagged membership in the faculty VLAN because port trunks do
not support untagged VLANs.
C. The switch-to-switch link must be added to the port trunk because the switches cannot simultaneously
support port trunks and single-port links between switches.
D. The port trunk must be configured for membership in the faculty VLAN because the trunk ports are
automatically assigned to the default VLAN as untagged members.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which ProCurve CLI command enables you to move from the Manager level to the Global
Configuration level?
A. global-su
B. su-enable
C. globalcfg
D. sw-disable
E. configure
Answer: E

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NO.17 A ProCurve University IT manager is on-site with a task to configure six new ProCurve switches for
in-band management access. Which connectivity method will facilitate this? (Select two.)
A. Telnet
B. SNMP
C. menu interface
D. serial console
E. XMODEM
Answer: AB

HP   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20 examen   HP0-Y20 examen

NO.18 A ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) server located at an insurance company has been reported as not
discovering any manageable devices except those on the subnet where the PCM+ Management Server
resides. Which statement is true about this behavior?
A. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery messages do not cross router interfaces.
B. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery uses Link Layer Discovery Protocol, which only
survives one switch-to-switch hop.
C. This behavior indicates that PCM+ has been configured with an incorrect default gateway.
D. This behavior is normal because by default, automatic discovery only occurs on the subnet that the
PCM+ management server belongs to.
Answer: D

certification HP   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20 examen

NO.19 After connecting five ProCurve Switch 5300xl switches, you find that Spanning Tree Protocol is
enabled by default and that some switch ports are in the Blocking state. Which statement best describes
the default Spanning Tree operation of ProCurve 5300xl switches? (Select two.)
A. All the switches use the standard version of Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. All ports are set to Fast Uplink mode, and because of the enhanced mode, their port status is shown as
"Blocking."
C. All the switches use Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol.
D. All the switches use Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
E. If any of the five switches' firmware supports Multiple Spanning Tree, all other switches automatically
switch to the Multiple Spanning Tree mode.
F. The switches will interoperate with neighboring switches that use Spanning Tree Protocol or Rapid
Spanning Tree Protocol.
Answer: CF

HP examen   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20 examen

NO.20 Which issues found in legacy core-oriented networking solutions can be resolved by migrating to
ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select two.)
A. Legacy core switches lack the capacity for implementing Layer 2 and Layer 3 redundancy
technologies.
B. Traffic forwarding must pass through core switch before routing, security, and prioritization tasks can be
performed.
C. Emerging protocols and standards such as IPv6 cannot be supported by legacy core switches.
D. As each switch is added at the edge, it increases the decision making load in the core and constrains
scalability.
E. Routers in core-oriented networks must perform more complicated packet manipulation than routers in
edge-oriented networks.
Answer: BD

HP examen   certification HP0-Y20   certification HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20 examen

NO.21 When considering the following options to manage a new installation of ProCurve network devices,
which options will support ProCurve Manager as a central management platform? (Select two.)
A. IBM p-series Server running IBM AIX 5L
B. HP Integrity Server running HP-UX 11i v3
C. HP Business Desktop running Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. HP ProLiant server running SuSE Linux Enterprise Server
E. HP ProLiant server running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
Answer: CE

HP   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20

NO.22 What is the free trial period for ProCurve Manager Plus?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
Answer: B

certification HP   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20 examen

NO.23 You must test and qualify new ProCurve switch software in a production network limited to a single
switch. Which two tasks combined enable you to test and qualify the new software without losing the
existing qualified production software? (Select two.)
A. Boot the switch to the secondary flash.
B. Upload the new software to a VLAN flash.
C. Boot the switch to the new software.
D. Dump the qualified software to a file and upload the new software.
E. Reset the VLAN to boot to the new software in the VLAN flash.
F. Upload the new software to secondary flash.
Answer: AF

HP   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20

NO.24 While presenting an overview of ProCurve Manager at a customer site, you differentiate between the
features of ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) and ProCurve Manager. Which features are only included in
PCM+? (Select two.)
A. VLAN management
B. alerts
C. automatic discovery
D. scheduled software updates
E. network topology mapping
Answer: AD

HP examen   HP0-Y20   HP0-Y20   certification HP0-Y20

NO.25 The IT manager of a large call center has configured four ProCurve Switch 5412zl's for HP Switch
Meshing. How does a switch that is part of the mesh handle broadcast and multicast traffic that originates
from a port outside the mesh?
A. It will replace broadcast and multicast addresses with the unicast MAC addresses of its neighbors in
the mesh.
B. It will forward both broadcast and multicast traffic over ports that form the loop-free topology
established by the meshing protocol.
C. It will flood broadcast and multicast traffic through meshed and non-meshed ports.
D. It will send a query to its directly connected neighbors to find out whether any of the neighbors'
connected hosts can respond to broadcasts and multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.26 When designing a wireless network, it is very important to consider the frequency range in which the
network operates and the maximum throughput of the network to ensure that it can meet the customer's
needs. Which wireless LAN standards specify frequency and maximum throughput of wireless networks?
(Select three.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11d
D. 802.11e
E. 802.11f
F. 802.11g
G. 802.11i
Answer: ABF

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NO.27 What is the maximum number of port trunk groups a customer can define on a ProCurve Switch
5412zl being used to aggregate traffic at the distribution level?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: D

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NO.28 In a Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol network using six ProCurve Switch 3500yl switches, you notice
that multiple switches have declared themselves Root in one of the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
instances. How can you correct this problem?
A. Modify the port priorities on all switch-to-switch links so that one switch has the highest priority value.
B. Set the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol parameters to use the switch with the highest hardware MAC
address as the Root switch.
C. Trace VLAN routing topology and modify the VLAN assignments on the switches so that they match.
D. Change the bridge discovery priorities on the switches to distinct values.
E. Check and modify the switches so that they have the same configuration name and revision number.
Answer: E

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NO.29 What is the effect when switch ports are placed in Blocking state by Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward any secured
Telnet traffic.
B. The switch will only forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will not receive any
network user traffic through those ports.
C. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward traffic related
to Link Aggregation Control Protocol and Bridge Protocol Data Units.
D. The ports are completely blocked and marked Not Used (zero transmission).
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which configuration steps are required to enable a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to synchronize its clock
with a SNTP server located on a different IP subnet? (Select three.)
A. Enable SNTP.
B. Enable TimeP.
C. Define a default IP gateway.
D. Configure for SNTP broadcast mode.
E. Enter the IP address of the SNTP server.
Answer: ACE

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