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Code d'Examen: HP0-J18
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 206 Q&As

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NO.1 You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen if a
single disk fails?
A.The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B.The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
C.The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
D.The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 What are components of the EVA 4100/6100/8100 Foundation Service?
A.Pre-Sales Consulting, 2-year hardware support, 2-year phone-in support and update
B.Pre-Sales Consulting, 3-year hardware support, 3-year phone-in support and update
C.Installation and Startup, 2-year hardware support, 2-year phone-in support and update
D.Installation and Startup, 3-year hardware support, 3-year phone-in support and update
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 You set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an Enterprise Virtual Array to
single. What is the effect?
A.One disk is reserved as spare space.
B.Two disks are reserved as spare space.
C.A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
D.A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 Which statement best describes virtual disk leveling?
A.subgrouping drives within a disk group to allow failure separation
B.distributing all user data proportionally across all spindles within a virtual disk
C.distributing all user data proportionally across all spindles within a disk group
D.allocating space per disk group to recover from physical disk failure in that group
ANSWER: C

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NO.5 What is presented to the specified host if you complete the virtual disk presentation sequence in Command
View EVA without specifying a LUN?
A.LUN 0
B.the next available LUN number
C.the highest available LUN number
D.most recently presented LUN number
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB Vraid1
Vdisks?
A.across 10 disks in the group
B.across 14 disks in the group
C.across 15 disks in the group
D.across 16 disks in the group
E.The group does not need to relevel.
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 Which statement is correct about the allocation policy of snapshots?
A.If one snapshot in a disk group is created using allocation on demand, all snapshots in the same disk group
must use allocation on demand.
B.If one snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using allocation on demand, other snapshots in the same
virtual disk family can be fully allocated snapshots.
C.If the first snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using the fully allocated method, all subsequent
snapshots in the same disk group must be fully allocated.
D.If the first snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using allocation on demand, all subsequent snapshots in
the same virtual disk family will use allocation on demand.
ANSWER: D

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NO.8 You want to add more drives into the cabinet of an EVA6100 with 8 shelves and 56 drives. What is the HP
best practice regarding this?
A.Always add drives into the array in multiples of eight.
B.Set the add disk option to automatic and add the drives.
C.Add all the drives at the same time to minimize disruption to the I/O path.
D.Add the drives into one shelf at a time because the data is stored on all disks in the array and the distribution
of the disks is not important.
ANSWER: A

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NO.9 A Vraid5 virtual disk has been created in a 12-member disk group. What is the result of the loss of one disk?
A.addition of a new Redundant Storage Set
B.reordering of disks in each Redundant Storage Set
C.reduction in the number of Redundant Storage Sets
D.no change in the number of Redundant Storage Sets
ANSWER: C

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NO.10 Which replication method can cause an overcommit situation? (Select two.)
A.clone
B.Vsnap
C.snapclone
D.fully allocated snapshot
E.demand-allocated snapshot
ANSWER: BE

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NO.11 You set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an Enterprise Virtual Array to
double. What is the effect?
A.Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B.Four disks are reserved as spare space.
C.A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
D.A four-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
ANSWER: D

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NO.12 A disk group member failure occurs with a Vraid5 virtual disk. What happens to the data if the disk group
has assigned spare space and there is also enough available free space?
A.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into a snapclone.
B.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the free space.
C.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the default disk group.
D.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the allocated spare space.
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the Enterprise Virtual Array context?
A.smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B.smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C.disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D.data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
ANSWER: B

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NO.14 What are features of FATA disk technology? (Select two.)
A.greater than 80% duty cycle
B.extensive command queueing
C.designed for 24 by 7 availability
D.no native Fibre Channel interface on FATA disks
E.same capacity at similar cost as Fibre Channel-SCSI disks
ANSWER: BC

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NO.15 You are preparing to upgrade an EVA5000 2C6D solution to an EVA6100 2C8D solution in a Windows
environment. What must be considered before the installation?
A.New array controllers are 1U higher than old controllers.
B.EVA6100 device switches have a greater installation height.
C.An M5214B enclosure cannot be used with an EVA6100 solution.
D.Different multipath software must be purchased to assure connectivity.
ANSWER: A

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NO.16 Which statements are correct about using thin provisioning in an EVA environment? (Select two.)
A.Capacity utilization is increased.
B.Extension of a LUN cannot be automated.
C.Host agents must be installed on servers.
D.LUN shrink is not always supported for EVA.
E.It can be performed within Command View EVA.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.17 Which EVA base models include loop switches? (Select two.)
A.EVA4100 2C4D
B.EVA6100 2C4D
C.EVA6100 2C6D
D.EVA8100 2C2D
E.EVA8100 2C8D
ANSWER: CE

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NO.18 You have a disk group set to double protection level that contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens
when you have the simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same
Redundant Storage Set (RSS)?
A.Vraid1 data migrates to Vraid5.
B.The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
C.The Vraid1 data from the failed disks are reconstructed.
D.The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 What happens to the Vraid5 when two disk drives residing in different Redundant Storage Sets go into the
Failed State simultaneously? (Select two.)
A.The Vraid5 fails and there is data loss.
B.Data on the remaining disk drives are releveled.
C.The data from the failed disk drives are reconstructed.
D.The two failed drives go into the migrating state to preserve the data.
E.The Vraid5 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and the data are preserved.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.20 Which statements about mirrorclones are correct? (Select two.)
A.A detached mirrorclone cannot be reattached to its source.
B.If the mirrorclone is in a normalized state, you can only detach it.
C.HP recommends keeping mirrorclones in the same disk group as the source.
D.The redundancy (Vraid) level of a mirrorclone must be the same or higher than the source.
E.A mirrorclone delta restore may be made when the mirrorclone source is also the source for a DR group.
ANSWER: AE

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S17
Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for
BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A.verification of operation
B.confirmation of software revisions
C.comprehensive porting and migration
D.systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E.proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
ANSWER: AB

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NO.2 Which features does Virtual Connect Ethernet module (VC-Enet) provide in a network environment?
(Select two.)
A.VC-Enet can stack across four enclosures in a rack.
B.VC-Enet appears as an HP ProCurve device to other network devices.
C.VC-Enet will not add any new switches for the network administrator to manage.
D.VC-Enet domains can be created directly using the Onboard Administrator console.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.3 Which ProLiant Essentials Value Pack is an integrated power monitoring and management
application that provides centralized monitoring and control of datacenter power consumption and thermal
output?
A.Insight Power Manager
B.HP Rack and Power Manager
C.Performance Management Pack
D.Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
ANSWER: A

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NO.4 Which industry standard memory technologies are supported in a BL465c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A.memory sparing
B.memory mirroring
C.memory interleaving
D.ECC and Advanced ECC
E.833MHz maximum speed DIMMs
ANSWER: CD

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NO.5 Which interconnect option creates domains and stacks LAN modules across c7000 Enclosures?
A.GbE2c Ethernet
B.Virtual Connect Ethernet
C.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
D.Virtual Connect Fibre Channel
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 Your customer has a c7000 Enclosure and two power supplies installed in bays 1 and 2. They are
switching from single-phase power to a three-phase power subsystem with full redundancy.
Which action is necessary to make this configuration work and be supported?
A.Install 4 additional power supplies.
B.Move the power supplies to bays 1 and 4.
C.Turn off the Dynamic Power Saver feature.
D.Enable three-phase power using the Onboard Administrator.
ANSWER: A

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NO.7 Which management suite delivers core management functionality for the HP BladeSystem solution,
including server deployment, health monitoring, performance monitoring, vulnerability scanning and patch
management?
A.HP Storage Essentials
B.HP Operations Software
C.Insight Control Environment
D.HP Systems Insight Manager
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 Which tool tests and evaluates the hardware and software configuration of systems where HP SIM is
installed or is being considered for installation?
A.Insight Control Advisor
B.HP SIM Capacity Planner
C.Active Answers Solution Sizer
D.Site Installation Preparation Utility
ANSWER: A

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NO.9 An administrator needs to monitor performance of every drive connected to the Smart Array controller.
Each drive is configured as a single logical drive.
Which tool can be used?
A.Insight Diagnostic
B.Radia Performance Manager
C.Performance Management Pack
D.Windows Server Performance Monitor
ANSWER: C

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NO.10 Which industry standard technologies are compatible with the SB600c AiO Storage Blade? (Select
two.)
A.ATA
B.SAS
C.SCSI
D.iSCSI
E.SATA
ANSWER: BD

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the HP StorageWorks SB40c Storage Blade?
A.provides a blade form factor tape solution for any server supporting the TCP/IP protocol
B.provides a blade form factor networked shared storage for any server supporting IP-based storage
(iSCSI)
C.provides additional storage capabilities dedicated to a single server blade within the same c7000
Enclosure
D.provides additional storage capabilities dedicated to a single server blade in another linked c7000
Enclosure
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 Which industry standard protocols are used by HP SIM? (Select two.)
A.XML
B.TFTP
C.iSCSI
D.WBEM
E.NetBEUI
ANSWER: AD

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NO.13 A customer has a Virtual Connect managed enclosure and needs to move one of the blades to a
non-virtual connect enclosure.
What should be done so that duplicate MAC addresses and WWNs do not appear in the datacenter due
to server blade deployment?
A.Enable the Reset to factory default switch on the blade system board.
B.Run the erase utility on the blade before plugging the server to the network.
C.First delete all MAC and WWNs configurations while the server is in the VC managed enclosure and
then move the server to the non-VC managed enclosure.
D.MAC addresses and WWNs are automatically returned to factory defaults when the server is moved to
the non-Virtual connect enclosure so no duplicate MAC addresses or WWNs appear.
ANSWER: D

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NO.14 What is an advantage of a c7000 Enclosure compared to a c3000 Enclosure in an enterprise
environment?
A.N+N redundancy in the power subsystem
B.Virtual Connect and storage blade support
C.interconnect redundancy for integrated NICs
D.application of Onboard Administrator advanced license
ANSWER: C

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NO.15 Which industry standard memory technology can be used by Intel Xeon-based c-Class server blades
to provide additional protection against failed or degrading FB-DIMMs? (Select two.)
A.Advanced ECC
B.mirrored memory
C.registered DIMMs
D.online spare memory
E.interleaved memory support
ANSWER: BD

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NO.16 The Virtual Connect Fibre Channel module uses which type of Port ID Virtualization protocol to
aggregate multiple Fibre Channel HBAs over a smaller number of physical uplinks?
A.E_Port
B.F_Port
C.L_Port
D.N_Port
ANSWER: D

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NO.17 Which devices can be assigned an IP address through Enclosure Bay IP Addressing (EBIPA) for
c-Class server blades? (Select two.)
A.iLO 2 cards
B.interconnects
C.Insight Display
D.LAN interfaces of mezzanine cards
E.iSCSI target IP address on server blades
ANSWER: AB

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NO.18 Which industry standard processor options are supported in the HP BL460c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A.Dual-Core Intel Xeon
B.Quad-Core Intel Xeon
C.Dual-Core Intel Itanium2
D.Dual-Core AMD Opteron
E.Quad-Core AMD Opteron
ANSWER: AB

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NO.19 After replacing a failed drive in a server blade, your customer complains about long logical drive time
recovery. What can you do to reduce recovery time?
A.Migrate the logical drive to RAID 6.
B.Install MPIO software on the server blade.
C.Set the rebuild priority to high on the controller.
D.Enable the Tagged Command Queuing (TCQ) feature on the hard drive.
ANSWER: C

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NO.20 A BladeSystem enclosure is managed by one Onboard Administrator that failed. Which functionality is
still available? (Select two.)
A.iLO 2 is accessible.
B.All fans are up and running.
C.Server blades can access the SAN.
D.New server blades can be added and powered up.
E.New interconnect devices can be added and powered up.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.21 You are administrating several c-Class enclosures and are looking for a unified authentication system
for all iLO cards and Onboard Administrator modules.
What is the proper solution?
A.HP Protect Tools
B.Credential Manager
C.Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
D.Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
ANSWER: D

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NO.22 Your customer wants to replace an existing c3000 Enclosure with a c7000 Enclosure. Which
components from the c3000 Enclosure can be reused in the c7000 Enclosure? (Select three.)
A.fans
B.power supplies
C.interconnect modules
D.server and storage blades
E.Onboard Administrator module
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.23 A customer is looking for a virtualization solution for their data center. Their main area of concern is
server down time.
You have identified the x86-based virtualization candidates. Which platform best suits the customer's
needs?
A.scale-up
B.scale-out
C.Integrity VSE
D.single server virtual consolidation
ANSWER: B

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NO.24 Your customer is looking for an Ethernet interconnect with Fibre uplinks for their c7000 Enclosure.
Which interconnects should be considered? (Select two.)
A.GbE2c Switch
B.Infiniband switch
C.Cisco Catalyst 3020
D.GbE2c Layer 2/3 Switch
E.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
ANSWER: CD

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NO.25 A customer that usually works with a c3000 Enclosure needs to use the external DVD drive on a
c7000 Enclosure and connect the drive to all servers in the c7000 Enclosure.
How can the external DVD drive on the c7000 Enclosure be accessed?
A.Use the DVD drive integrated in the c7000 Enclosure.
B.Use the DVD drive connected to the downlink port of the c7000 Enclosure.
C.Use the DVD drive connected to the USB port on an Onboard Administrator module.
D.Use the DVD drive attached through the serial/USB/video cable attached to any server blade.
ANSWER: C

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NO.26 Which interconnect module offered by HP has the capability of assigning a configuration profile to a
specific server blade?
A.GbE2c Switch
B.Cisco 3020 Switch
C.Virtual Connect Ethernet
D.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
ANSWER: C

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NO.27 You are replacing one of your redundant GbE2c interconnect switch modules in your c7000 Enclosure.
What must you be aware of when you install a replacement GbE2C switch with default settings into the
enclosure?
A.Crosslink ports are disabled and redundancy is lost between switches.
B.Crosslink ports are enabled and will cause a loop in your switch topology.
C.Uplink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
D.Downlink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.28 Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for
BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A.service planning interview
B.network device configuration
C.comprehensive porting and migration
D.systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E.proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
ANSWER: AB

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NO.29 An administrator configures an HP c7000 Enclosure using Onboard Administrator. Which option can
be used to automatically configure IP addresses for all iLO cards and interconnect modules?
A.Insight Display
B.Virtual Connect Manager
C.Interconnect LAN Manager
D.Enclosure Bay IP Addressing (EBIPA)
ANSWER: D

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NO.30 A customer wants to deploy a c7000 Enclosure and six server blades in a datacenter with limited
power. How can they ensure the solution fits within the available datacenter power envelope?
A.The customer needs to make sure they have at least 6750 watts of available power in every case.
B.Use the HP BladeSystem Sizer to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they want
to deploy.
C.Use the HP Rack and Power tool to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they
want to deploy.
D.Use the Enterprise Configurator in ActiveAnswers to determine how much power is needed for the
configuration they want to deploy.
ANSWER: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M21
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Universal Configuration Management Database Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 136 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a script used for?
A. It is a part of the pattern and contains the connection code to connect to infrastructure resources and
request information
B. It is used for the TQL for triggered list
C. It is used for the TQL command lines
D. It is the code used for finding the result in the uCMDB
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three components comprise a discovery task?
A. User, server and pattern
B. Server, DB and probe
C. Pattern, script and credentials
D. DB, pattern and protocol
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where would you edit the attribute value of a CI?
A. on the Related CIs page of IT Universe Manager
B. on the Topology Map page of IT Universe Manager
C. on the Properties page of IT Universe Manager
D. on the Properties page of View Manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the "Refresh View" menu item used for?
A. to update the information in the IT Universe Manager
B. to update the information in the view explorer
C. to rebuild the view
D. to refresh the browser
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the "View Sublayer" context menu used for?
A. to include the CI Type instances and instances of all subtypes in the view
B. to attach new related CI
C. to view child CIs without navigating away from the present layer
D. to view parent CIs without navigating away from the present layer
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which is not part of a package?
A. Class definitions (XML)
B. TQL and Views
C. Reports, Correlations and Enrichments
D. Protocols and credentials
Answer: D

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NO.7 What would you see in a Topology map if you set the "Number of Hops" to 4?
A. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or fewer links
B. CIs that are directly related to the selected CI
C. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or more links
D. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by three or fewer links
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a topology map?
A. a manager used to create and organize views
B. a graphical representation of a subset of the CMDB
C. the editing pane where views are created
D. a list representation of a subset of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the domain scope?
A. A set of IP Addresses that contains credential information
B. All the IPs that the probe can access to
C. The Probe's IP
D. The User's network Domain
Answer: A

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NO.10 How do you navigate between layers?
A. by double-clicking on the Related in View in Related CIs tab
B. by double-clicking on the Navigation button in the menu bar
C. by selecting a layout from the Layout menu in the menu bar
D. by double-clicking on the down arrow and the green up arrow
Answer: D

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NO.11 What protocol(s) are used to discover J2EE environments?
A. JMX
B. JDBC and WMI
C. SNMP or WMI
D. JMX and ICMP
Answer: A

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NO.12 When are view parameters created?
A. when the TQL is created
B. when the view is created
C. when the TQL is calculated
D. when the view is calculated
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which layer(s) does Discovery support or extract information from?
A. Layers 2 through 7
B. Only layers 2 and 7
C. Layer 7 only (application)
D. Layers 2,5 and 7
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the correct statement with regard to "Filter Related in DB"?
A. Displays the related CIs from the current view
B. Displays the related CIs from the entire CMDB
C. Displays specific types of related CIs from the current view
D. Displays specific types of related CIs from the entire CMDB
Answer: D

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NO.15 How many sets of credential per protocol are allowed?
A. Only one
B. Many
C. At least one
D. Maximum two
Answer: B

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NO.16 You navigate to the topology map and notice that there are no labels to the CIs. What might be the
reason for this?
A. The Map overview option is selected.
B. The Hide All Relationship option is selected.
C. The Hide All Node Labels option is selected.
D. The Hide All Relationship Labels option is selected.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What types of information can be derived using Discovery?
A. Config files, reading records from another system, looking at network data
B. Config files ,OS and DB tables C. All network device
D. All In-house and network software and hardware
Answer: A

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NO.18 What information do patterns store?
A. CIs and relationships to be created, Discovery Protocols, Parameters and scripts
B. Destination list and Protocols and triggered CIs
C. Only credentials
D. Scripts and UCMDB connection
Answer: A

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NO.19 What pattern is used for discovering IP's?
A. ICMP
B. WMI
C. SNMP
D. JMX
Answer: A

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NO.20 You want to add a new CI to the view in the Topology View. Which are the possible actions you may
take?
A. Insert CI and Insert View
B. Insert View and Insert Related CI
C. Insert CI and Insert Related CI D. Insert View only
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M26
Nom d'Examen: HP (Infrastructure Monitoring using HP SiteScope v9)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 How do you use the SiteScope Configuration tool?
A. Disable pop-up warnings, change the default interface port, and change the default installation
directory.
B. Change the default SiteScope interface port, import/export group files and templates, and then alter the
Heap parameters.
C. Edit the SiteScope interface port, change operating system settings to allow for better SiteScope
performance, export and import user data.
D. Edit the SiteScope interface port and protocol, change the default installation directory and change the
default administrator access credentials.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Click Next or More to continue.
<_p><11>pnl21|pnl6|
<_p><11>pnl22|pnl2|
<_p><11>pnl23|pnl1|
<_p><10>pnl5|pnl3|
492dd584670f? 492dd585170b
Click the Task button.
Arrange the steps of the monitoring process in the correct sequence.
Answer:

NO.3 Which SiteScope term refers to a collected value, performance parameter, URL, or similar system
response?
A. Metric
B. Monitor
C. Threshold
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A

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NO.4 With which HP Software Products can SiteScope be integrated? (Select three.)
A. HP LoadRunner
B. HP Asset Manager
C. HP Software as a Service
D. HP Business Availability Center
E. HP Project and Portfolio Management
F. HP Change and Configuration Manager
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 What are pre-requisites for tuning SiteScope? (Select two.)
A. SiteScope must be installed as a standalone server.
B. All instances of SiteScope must run on the same server.
C. Disconnect SiteScope from the network being monitored.
D. A single instance of SiteScope must be running on a server.
E. SiteScope must be installed on the server that is to be monitored.
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: HP2-037
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP LaserJet Foundations)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 You are troubleshooting a non-functional printer and have identified and analyzed all
symptoms associated with the particular problem. What should your next course of action
be?
A. develop an action plan for problem resolution
B. determine and prioritize possible causes
C. narrow the symptoms to one critical area
D. identify a possible solution
Answer: B

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NO.2 The HP born-on date (Service ID) appears as a five digit number in the format YYDDD,
where YY represents the year of manufacture and DDD the month and day. Using the
standard formula, what is the born-on date represented by 11280?
A. December 30, 1991
B. January 28, 2001
C. October 10,2001
D. December 30, 1996
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which printer component informs the engine controller that the paper is moving through
the printer?
A. pressure sensors
B. photosensors
C. pickup rollers
D. registration rollers
Answer: B

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NO.4 Test has a LaserJet 4100 MFP, in which there was a failed hard disk drive
(HDD). The faulty 20GB HDD has been replaced with a new 40GB HDD. Now the
customer is unable to find the 'Send' option under 'Configure Device' on the control
panel. What is the issue?
A. firmware needs to be downloaded on to the HDD
B. the sending option is never available in the control panel
C. the 40GB HDD is not compatible and needs a 20GB HDD
D. the HDD is not initialized
Answer: D

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NO.5 Test has purchased a < memory DIMM to upgrade a Color LaserJet 4600
printer. The printer gives a 53.10.xx error after the memory is upgraded to the printer.
What needs to be done to resolve the issue?
A. upgrade is not possible
B. the printer memory slot is faulty, the formatter needs replacement
C. the memory has been installed in the wrong slot, memory will need to reinstalled
properly
D. the memory doesn't meet HP standard, different memory will need to be purchased
Answer: D

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NO.6 What type of control panel message informs you of data and print errors?
A. warning messages
B. error messages
C. critical error messages
D. service messages
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which functions are available on a multi-function printer? Select THREE.
A. email capability
B. color separation
C. digital enhancement
D. thermal imaging
E. network printing
F. faxing
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.8 Test has a LaserJet 4345 MFP printer, and wants to configure the 'Send To
Folder' option. He has an expired version of Digital Sending Software. How can the
customer configure the 'Send To Folder' option?
A. the printer driver
B. EWS (Embedded Web Server)
C. WJA (Web Jet Administrator)
D. the control panel
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have been tasked with determining the cause of a paper jam in a laser printer. You
have determined the location of the jam. You have checked the sensor flags in the paper
path, and you have checked the condition of the rollers in the paper path. What could still
be a cause of the jam?
A. The transfer belt is dirty.
B. The toner is low.
C. The fuser is at an incorrect temperature.
D. The media being used is outside the specifications for this printer.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is one possible cause of consistently smeared print output?
A. paper moisture content too high
B. paper moisture content too low
C. paper finish too smooth or basis weight too heavy
D. paper finish too rough or basis weight too light
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J27
Nom d'Examen: HP (Advanced SAN Architecture )
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 During an infrastructure assessment, which SAN management category ensures that data is available
and accessible?
A.SAN fabric management
B.SAN usage and monitoring
C.SAN storage management
D.SAN data management
Answer:D

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NO.2 Your customer wants to migrate from a monolithic to a modular SAN design. Which benefits does the
new design provide the customer? (Select two.)
A.minimum complexity
B.lowest number of SAN switch ports
C.mainframe connectivity
D.consistent throughput and performance
E.very high scalability
Answer:D E

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NO.3 Which naming schemes are used by iSCSI nodes? (Select two.)
A.iSCSI qualified name
B.enterprise unique identifier
C.SLP service number
D.fully qualified domain name
E.world wide network identifier
Answer:A B

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NO.4 Which critical areas must the SAN architect be able to discuss during SAN design? (Select three.)
A.data protection
B.data availability
C.data replication
D.SAN scalability
E.high availability
F.SAN availability
Answer:A B D

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NO.5 Which FCIP device supports HP B-series, but not C-series Fibre Channel switches for SAN extension?
A.SAN Valley SL1000 IP-SAN Gateway
B.HP StorageWorks MPX100
C.HP StorageWorks SR2122-2 IP Storage Router
D.HP StorageWorks Multiprotocol Router
Answer:D

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Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM System z Technical Support V4)
Questions et réponses: 67 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has several System z servers and is considering moving to zEnterprise. They ask if all their
installed systems can be upgraded directly to zEnterprise. Which of the following IBM z Servers will not
upgrade directly to zEnterprise?
A. z10 EC
B. z9 EC
C. z10 BC
D. z10 IFL only
Answer: D

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NO.2 The System z specialist is talking to the IT Manager of a large enterprise who asks, what are the
benefits of Server Virtualization? Which of the following is a benefit of Server Virtualization on System z
A. Hipersocket networking reduces physical networking requirements between virtual servers
B. Equal access to all resources and data for all applications
C. Will always reduce cost of IT
D. NSF allows data be shared between UNIX, Windows and System z Servers
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer with a System z Server and DS8000 storage subsystems will be creating a new remote data
center for disaster recovery (DR). The data centers are 613 kilometers (381 miles) apart. The data
migration and production cutover must be accomplished with minimal disruption.
Which of the following technologies best meets these requirements?
A. Global Mirror
B. SVC
C. PPRC
D. Flash Copy
Answer: A

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NO.4 In a customer project status meeting, a new requirement surfaces. This requirement may result in
substantially more storage being needed than originally specified. Which of the following addresses this
change?
A. Provide a quotation for more disk
B. Recommend the client postpones the requirement
C. Propose IBM Storage Cloud Services
D. Process a project change-order
Answer: D

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NO.5 A z800 customer has been acquired by a larger company. The parent company is a z196 customer. The
parent company CIO has told the z800 staff to upgrade from z/OS 1.4 to a supported z/OS version on a
z10 BC. The CIO understands there is no simple supported migration path. The z800 staff plans to
present the parent company CIO four migration options. Which of the following plans will bring them to a
supported environment?
A. Research PSP buckets to ensure all required service is applied to z/OS 1.4
B. Purchase IBM Lifecycle Extension for z/OS 1.7 and migrate to z/OS 1.7
C. Order the most current version of z/OS and migrate to that version
D. Install the z10 with z/VM and run z/OS 1.4 as a z/VM Guest
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer is considering consolidating 50 existing Linux x86 servers to Linux on System z.
Which of the following is the best way to create a detailed consolidated sizing for these 50
servers?
A. Collect performance and workload data for CPU busy on the current servers and translate RPE2s into
MIPS, then input the results into
eConfig for a sizing
B. Collect performance data and use it for a Fit for Purpose study to create a sizing
C. Collect performance and workload data from existing servers and share it with IT Architects and
Techline to create a sizing.
D. Use the IBM Workload Estimator (IWE) on the Internet to create the detailed consolidated sizing.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer is planning for their first z196. At what stage should pre-sale TDA be performed?
A. Prior to point of ordering
B. Prior to proposal
C. Prior to initial solution design meeting
D. Prior to delivery
Answer: B

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NO.8 A client is considering a zBX for application serving. Which of the following issues need to be discussed
during implementation planning for the zBX with the client?
A. Level of Windows running on zBX
B. Toleration PTFs for z/OS running on the zBX
C. Maintenance level of zVM
D. Levels of Linux on System x, and AIX on zBX
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer is installing their first zBX to analyze the fit for a large implementation later. The Operations
Director is concerned about what device would service the blade, specifically for replacing microcode or
recognizing hardware failure. Which of the following devices performs these functions for the zBX?
A. Any HMC attached to the z196
B. Any HMC attached to the System z ensemble that owns the blade
C. The HMC currently running Unified Resource Manager
D. The HMC attached to the System z node that owns the blade
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer is willing to buy one z196 with four zBX. The manager of the mainframe department is
concerned about the acoustical noise from the zBX. What action should be done in order to address this
concern.?
A. Order Rear Door Heat eXchanger to minimize BladeCenter noise.
B. IBM Site and Facilities Services can provide sound attenuation panels for data center walls and
ceilings
C. Order IBM acoustic door
D. Order 3rd party vendor acoustic attenuation enclosures for BladeCenter
Answer: C

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