Dernières IBM 000-913 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-913
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Informix 4gl development)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 Which qualifiers can be used when formatting report output?
A. USING
B. SPACES
C. STRING
D. NEWLINE
E. PICTURE
F. CLIPPED
Answer: ABF

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NO.2 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the code in the exhibit, what would be displayed in the field lastname if the user were to enter
"Jones" and press F3 in the lastname field? (Assume lastname is 20 characters long.)
A. null
B. Smith
C. Jones
D. blank
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are characteristics of INFORMIX-4GL RDS?
A. It provides a graphical user interface.
B. It can use the INFORMIX-4GL Interactive Debugger.
C. It compiles faster than INFORMIX-4GL Compiled Version.
D. It executes faster than INFORMIX-4GL Compiled Version.
Answer: BC

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NO.4 What is the effect of the WITHOUT DEFAULTS clause of an INPUT statement?
A. It initializes the program variables to NULL.
B. It prevents user input of DEFAULT values in the form.
C. It prevents the program variables from being initialized to NULL.
D. It initializes the program variables to their table-defined defaults.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the exhibit, what is the stock_curs cursor being used to do?
A. supply an "index of primary keys" to the stock_all_curs
B. lock the current row of data in the database table to prevent the data from becoming stale
C. check if any new rows have been inserted into the table since the stock_all_curs was last opened
D. fetch the complete row of data from the database for the primary key supplied by the stock_all_curs
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which type of errors can be trapped by SQLCA.SQLCODE?
A. compile-time errors
B. user-interface errors
C. application logic errors
D. run-time database errors
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is correct about the BEFORE MENU clause of the MENU statement?
A. It will execute before the menu appears to the user on the screen.
B. It is required to check user access privileges before displaying the menu.
C. It is the only place that the HIDE OPTION and SHOW OPTION statements can be used.
D. It is required before variables can be used for the menu-name, option name, and option-description.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The end users at your client site require the ability to enter purchase orders online. Management has
agreed to allow the users to perform this function, but with some restrictions. End users will be classified
as one of three categories:
Each category of employee will have the following limits on the amount of the purchase order they are
allowed to enter:
Given the following table structures and relationship:
Which two functions must be created to determine the maximum purchase order amount that a user is
authorized to enter? (Choose two.)
A. function to obtain the login of the user
B. function to obtain the usertype_amt for the user
C. function to obtain the login ID and group of the user
D. function to obtain the personal profile set-up by the user
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Given the following directory structure, where would you find two existing libraries for the application?
(Choose two.)
A. Bin
B. Lib
C. Util
D. 4GL_lib
Answer: BD

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NO.10 Which are valid INFORMIX-4GL function types?
A. MAIN
B. DEFINE
C. REPORT
D. INCLUDE
E. OPTIONS
F. GLOBALS
G. FUNCTION
Answer: ACFG

IBM examen   000-913   000-913

NO.11 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the exhibit, which rows will the DELETE statement delete?
A. all of the rows
B. all rows except those rows with a stock_num equal to five
C. only those rows with descriptions of baseball and football
D. only those rows with descriptions of baseball gloves and baseball hat
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which cursor type can use the FETCH PREVIOUS syntax?
A. scroll cursor
B. update cursor
C. non-scrolling cursor
D. a mobile cursor available only in D4GL
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statements will be interrupted if the DEFER INTERRUPT statement has been executed and the
user presses the interrupt key?
A. INPUT
B. CONSTRUCT
C. INPUT ARRAY
D. OPEN CURSOR
E. START REPORT
Answer: ABC

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NO.14 What does the INPUT statement do?
A. It defines variables used in a form.
B. It moves a user through the fields in a form.
C. It automatically opens the form and displays it.
D. It assigns a field in a form to a program variable.
Answer: BD

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NO.15 Which statements can be used in an INPUT statement control block?
A. showhelp(23)
B. NEXT ROW PRIOR
C. NEXT FIELD NEXT
D. CALL showhelp(23)
E. NEXT FIELD PREVIOUS
F. PROMPT "text" FOR CHAR variable
Answer: CDE

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NO.16 Which are valid clauses of an INPUT statement?
A. ON KEY
B. ON ANY KEY
C. ON LAST KEY
D. ON INPUT WRAP
E. BEFORE/AFTER KEY
F. BEFORE/AFTER INPUT
G. BEFORE/AFTER FIELD
H. BEFORE/AFTER INTERRUPT
Answer: AFG

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NO.17 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the segment of code in the exhibit, what is the appropriate text for the variable
what_error_message?
A. The serial number you entered is not valid.
B. Duplicate equipment records are not allowed.
C. Equipment was not found, please re-enter the serial number.
D. Null values are not allowed in name, serial number, make, or model fields.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is one advantage of using INFORMIX-4GL C-compiled version versus INFORMIX-4GL RDS?
A. It compiles faster.
B. It executes the program faster.
C. It uses the INFORMIX-4GL Interactive Debugger.
D. It readily accesses a graphical presentation of your application.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Why will preparing UPDATE and DELETE statements increase their execution speed?
A. UPDATE and DELETE statements can NOT be prepared.
B. The rows of the tables being selected will be cached in memory if the statement is prepared.
C. Prepared statements are checked for syntax and optimized at prepare time, not at execution time.
D. Memory is allocated for the results set which will be returned from the SELECT statement at prepare
time.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the form in the exhibit, which code segment would properly add 10 days to the input contents of
field a and display the results in field b?
A. AFTER FIELD a
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
DISPLAY BY NAME r_record.b
B. BEFORE INPUT
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
DISPLAY BY NAME r_record.b
C. AFTER FIELD a
NEXT FIELD b
LET r_record.b = r_record.a +10
D. ON KEY (F3)
NEXT FIELD a
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which sequence of steps opens a form and displays it on the screen?
A. an OPEN WINDOW WITH FORM statement
B. an OPEN FORM statement, followed by a FORM statement
C. an OPEN WINDOW statement, followed by an OPEN FORM statement
D. an OPEN FORM statement, followed by a DISPLAY FORM statement
Answer: AD

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NO.22 Which clauses must be included in an INPUT statement?
A. TO
B. FROM
C. INPUT
D. ATTRIBUTE
E. screen_variable
F. program_variable
Answer: CF

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NO.23 An end user wants to see how values x and y are being set in function1 and function2, and also needs
to know the value of z before function3 is called.
Using the Informix 4GL Debugger, which sequence of steps accomplishes this?
A. set a break point for line 6, execute a call function2, execute a step/step
B. set a break point for line 5, execute a call function1, execute a call function2, execute print z on line 10
C. set a break point for line 5, execute a step into on lines 5 and 6; execute print z on line 9 prior to
executing a step/step into/continue
D. set a break point for line 5, execute a step, print x, execute a step, print y, execute print z on line 9 prior
to executing a step/step into/continue
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which statement about INFORMIX-4GL is true?
A. The INFORMIX-4GL C-compiled version requires a p-code runner to execute.
B. INFORMIX-4GL for Windows is only offered in the RDS version of the product.
C. The INFORMIX-4GL RDS version compiles faster than the INFORMIX-4GL C-compiled version.
D. The INFORMIX-4GL RDS version executes faster than the INFORMIX-4GL C-compiled version.
Answer: C

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NO.25 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the code segment in the exhibit, which function(s) would be called?
A. function_a()
B. function_a() and function _b()
C. function_a(), function_b() and function_c()
D. function_a() and a run-time error would occur
Answer: A

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NO.26 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the form in the exhibit, which code segment would properly add 10 to the input contents of field a
and display the results in field b?
A. AFTER FIELD a
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
DISPLAY BY NAME r_record.b
B. BEFORE INPUT
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
DISPLAY BY NAME r_record.b
C. AFTER FIELD a
NEXT FIELD b
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
D. ON KEY (F3)
NEXT FIELD a
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which INPUT statements are syntactically correct?
A. INPUT r_record.* BY NAME
B. INPUT BY NAME r_record.*
C. INPUT r_record.* FROM s_input.*
D. INPUT FROM s_input.* TO r_record.*
E. INPUT TO s_input.* FROM r_record.*
F. INPUT BY NAME r_record.* FROM s_input.*
Answer: BC

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NO.28 Which statement uses correct syntax for the INPUT statement?
A. INPUT program_variable FROM screen_variable
B. INPUT FROM program_variable TO screen_variable
C. INPUT TO program_variable FROM screen_variable
D. INPUT ATTRIBUTE BY NAME TO program_variable FROM screen_variable
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which values will the form display when using the INPUT ARRAY statement?
A. null
B. the values of the program array
C. the default attributes of the form
D. the default attributes of the form or null
E. the default column values from the table definition or null
F. the default attributes of the form or the default column values from the table definition
G. the default attributes of the form, the default column values from the table definition, or null
Answer: G

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NO.30 Which statement transfers fields on a form to program variables?
A. LET
B. INPUT
C. DISPLAY
D. INITIALIZE
Answer: B

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Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 000-737, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-737
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 System Administrator for z/OS Exam)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two methods can be used to configure the use of a SSL secure port on a DB2 for z/OS server?
(Choose two.)
A.Specify "Y" in the SECURE column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
B.Specify a secure port value in the PORT column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
C.Update the DDF statement in the BSDS using DSNJU003.
D.Specify the TCP/IP port number in the DRDA SECURE PORT field of the Distributed Data Facility Panel
2 (DSNTIP5).
E.Specify the value of the secure port in the DRDA PORT field of DSNTIP5.
Answer:C D

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NO.2 You are migrating your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to DB2 9. You have already used the
user-defined RTS tables in version 8 and you are planning to also use RTS in version 9. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.DSNRTSDB is integrated into the DB2 9 catalog.
B.The existing the real-time statistics data is copied from your user-defined tables to catalog tables as part
of the migration to CM.
C.You can safely drop your user-defined RTS database once you are in ENFM.
D.You should keep your user-defined RTS database until you have fully migrated to NFM.
E.Execute DDL in member DSNTESS in SDSNSAMP to create the RTS database.
Answer:A C

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NO.3 Which two statements regarding system parameters are true? (Choose two.)
A.Indexes can now be mapped to 8K and 16K buffer pools assigned by default using the system
parameter IDXBPOOL.
B.Implicit table space data sets are always defined at create time without a system parameter to override
this behavior.
C.Indexes can be compressed for an entire subsystem by setting the IDXCOMP system parameter to
YES.
D.The default for BIND option DBPROTOCOL can no longer be specified using the system parameter
DBPROTCL.
E.The amount of work file storage used by any one agent cannot be controlled via system parameters.
Answer:A D

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NO.4 Which two actions must be performed for a data sharing traditional image copy disaster recovery?
(Choose two.)
A.Use STARTRBA=ENDRBA for the conditional restart control record.
B.Start DB2 using the LIGHT(YES) keyword.
C.Use DEFER=ALL in the system parameters during the first restart.
D.Modify the IRLM start up proc to specify SCOPE=LOCAL.
E.Use the SETXCF FORCE command to delete DB2 CF structures.
Answer:C E

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NO.5 An accounting report shows high class 3 times. Which three could contribute to the class 3 times?
(Choose three.)
A.elapsed time
B.not accounted time
C.page latch
D.service task switch
E.synchronous I/O
Answer:C D E

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NO.6 The DB2-supplied SQL Procedure Processor stored procedure DSNTPSMP requires which two for
execution? (Choose two.)
A.DB2 for z/OS REXX Language Support
B.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB=1
C.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB > 1
D.Optimization Service Center
E.Java Virtual Machine
Answer:A B

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NO.7 A DASD controller error occurs which results in all of the active logs being marked as "STOPPED" by
DB2. Which steps should be performed to resolve the log status after the controller error has been
repaired?
A.1) Stop DB2. 2) Start DB2.
B.1) Stop DB2. 2) REPRO the archive logs to the corresponding active logs. 3) Start DB2.
C.1) Stop DB2. 2) Use DSN1LOGP to make sure last log record written matches the information in the
BSDS. 3) Do a conditional restart specifying ENDRBA to the highest RBA in the log.
D.1) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to delete the active logs from the BSDS. 2) Use the
change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to add the active logs back into the BSDS.
Answer:D

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NO.8 A customer has just migrated their DB2 system to V9 new function mode. They currently use the
BACKUP SYSTEM utility and have optionally dumped the backup to tape. Which action should be
performed to only use the system level backup that was taken to disk?
A.Run the DSNJU003 utility and modify the system point in time backup record to have
DUMPSTATE=NONE.
B.Use the BACKUPTYPE(DASD) keyword on the RESTORE SYSTEM utility.
C.Use the TAPEDUMP(NORECSYS) keyword on the BACKUP SYSTEM utility when the backup is taken.
D.Set the RESTORE_RECOVER_FROMDUMP system parameter to NO.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which two accounting trace classes must be active when tracing package and DBRM related activity?
(Choose two.)
A.class 1
B.class 2
C.class 3
D.class 5
E.class 7
Answer:A E

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NO.10 You create a system level point-in-time recovery conditional restart control record with SYSPITR value
of FFFFFFFFFFFF. Afterwards, you run the RESTORE SYSTEM utility. Which statement is correct?
A.RESTORE SYSTEM does not do anything, because this SYSPITR value indicates a "no-operation".
B.The specified LRSN is an IBM internal SYSPITR value, reserved for serviceability only.
C.RESTORE SYSTEM fails because the SYSPITR value is outside the range of valid log points.
D.The whole DB2 data sharing group is recovered without log truncation.
Answer:D

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NO.11 You have to recover your complete DB2 system by image copies and the RECOVER utility. You start the
recovery with DSNDB01.SYSUTILX and DSNDB01.DBD01. Which table space must be recovered next?
A.DSNDB01.SPT01
B.DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
C.DSNDB06.SYSCOPY
D.DSNDB06.SYSDBASE
Answer:C

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NO.12 A customer is performing a traditional image copy disaster recovery test. The systems programmer
creates a conditional restart control record (CRCR) but detects an error before starting DB2. Which action
should be performed to correct the CRCR record?
A.First use CRESTART,DELETE to delete the error CRCR record then CRESTART,CREATE to add a
new one.
B.Start DB2, reply "M" to the WTOR that is displayed from the first CRCR record to modify the CRCR
parameters.
C.Use CRESTART,MODIFY to modify the parameters of the error CRCR record.
D.Use CRESTART,CREATE to create a new CRCR record.
Answer:D

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NO.13 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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NO.14 There is a suspected problem with catalog table space DSNDB06.SYSDBASE. Should a problem be
discovered, which series of tasks could you run to analyze and resolve the problem?
A.Run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary.
B.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DBD against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary.
C.START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(UT); run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run
REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(RW).
D.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run CHECK DATA to validate RI constraints; run DSN1CHKR
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Answer:C

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NO.15 A user job runs a very long time without commit and then the application abends. The job updated a
critical table that is used by many applications. The back out is taking a long time. Which statement
describes the appropriate action to take?
A.Cancel the DB2 system since this is a critical resource that is needed by many applications.
B.Issue the -CANCEL THREAD(token) NOBACKOUT.
C.Let DB2 continue with the back out.
D.Restart the system using the LBACKOUT=AUTO system parameter.
Answer:C

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NO.16 An accounting trace shows a high get page per SQL ratio for a query which retrieves just one row each
time it is executed. Which two situations could account for the high ratio? (Choose two.)
A.Use of a matching unique index scan.
B.Use of a nonmatching index scan.
C.Use of an index with low cardinality.
D.Use of an index with high cardinality.
E.Use of a single column index that is a GENERATED ALWAYS identity column.
Answer:B C

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NO.17 DSNDB06.SYSPLAN runs out of space. Which steps should be performed to resolve the situation?
A.1) COPY DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM
data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
6) RECOVER DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
B.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN
VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) LOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
C.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) ALTER PRIQTY to a larger value. 3) LOAD REPLACE
DSNDB06.SYSCOPY.
D.1) REORG UNLOAD SHRLEVEL REFERENCE DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3)
Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more
space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) REORG RESUME DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
Answer:A

IBM examen   000-737   certification 000-737   000-737

NO.18 By examining a DB2 accounting report, how can you determine if DASD I/O contention is a factor in a
poor performing application?
A.Divide the number of get pages by the number of synchronous I/Os.
B.Divide the synchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
C.Divide the asynchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
D.Divide the class 2 elapsed time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
Answer:B

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NO.19 Your administrative scheduler shows message DSNA679I indicating that one or both copies of your
task lists is not accessible or is corrupted. Your analysis shows that only the VSAM file is corrupt, but the
ADMIN_TASKS table is still operational. Which statement describes how to correct this situation?
A.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and let DB2 perform an autonomic recovery using the
content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
B.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use REPRO utility to copy the contents of the VSAM
cluster containing the ADMIN_TASKS table.
C.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use DB2 command -RECOVER TASKLIST to
recover the content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
D.No manual interaction is needed as long as the ADMIN_TASKS table is still accessible.
Answer:A

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NO.20 What is a benefit of using the in-memory work file in DB2 9?
A.Improves performance using TEMP database.
B.Avoids I/Os for the declared global temporary tables.
C.Improves performance for small sorts.
D.Sorts a large number of rows faster.
Answer:C

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NO.21 Which two statements are true regarding a traditional image copy disaster recovery in a data sharing
environment? (Choose two )
A.All members defined to the data sharing group must be restarted at the disaster recovery site.
B.When using change log inventory (DSNJU003), the latest log record sequence number that can be
used is the oldest last written log record of all members participating in the restart.
C.Only one conditional restart control record (CRCR) needs to be created for the data sharing group and
all DB2 members will utilize this CRCR during restart.
D.SETXCF FORCE commands should be used to purge DB2 coupling facility structures prior to staring
the first DB2 member.
E.The catalog and directory must be recovered by first data sharing member brought up at the disaster
recovery site and all other members must not be started before this recovery is finished.
Answer:B D

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NO.22 A DB2 subsystem is being migrated/converted from DB2 Version 8 to DB2 9. The subsystem currently
has these characteristics: new DB2 9 functions are not available; no DB2 9 objects can exist; the
subsystem cannot fall-back to CM (conversion mode); the subsystem cannot fall-back to Version 8; the
subsystem cannot coexist with any Version 8 systems in a data sharing group. Which mode describes the
DB2 subsystem?
A.CM* (conversion mode*)
B.ENFM (enabling-new-function mode)
C.ENFM* (enabling-new-function mode*)
D.NFM (new-function mode)
Answer:B

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NO.23 You are planning the migration of your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to version 9. Rebinding existing
packages is highly recommended, but you are also worrying about potential problems that might occur
with new access paths after rebind. Which action gives you the option to rebind packages with the ability
to fall back to the original access path if performance problems are encountered?
A.Use REBIND PACKAGE option PLANMGMT(BASIC) or (EXTENDED).
B.Use REBIND PACKAGE option REOPT(ONCE).
C.Use REBIND PACKAGE option OPTHINT.
D.Use REBIND PACKAGE option KEEPDYNAMIC(YES).
Answer:A

IBM examen   000-737   000-737   000-737 examen   000-737

NO.24 Which privilege is required to use the ACCESS command?
A.DISPLAY
B.STARTDB
C.MONITOR
D.ACCESSDB
Answer:B

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NO.25 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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NO.26 Regarding SVC dumps for the DBM1 address space, what should be reviewed to determine the DB2
failing component?
A.the GRS summary
B.the LOGREC symptom string
C.the RMM Control Block Analysis
D.the RSM summary
Answer:B

IBM   000-737   000-737   000-737   000-737 examen

NO.27 Which statement is true regarding disaster recovery scenarios?
A.When using the RESTORE SYSTEM utility, each DB2 member must use the same SYSPITR value
when creating conditional restart control records (CRCR).
B.When using an advanced disk mirroring solution, a conditional restart of DB2 must still be performed at
the disaster site.
C.With a synchronous peer to peer replication solution, a group restart is not required for a data sharing
group since everything is synchronously mirrored.
D.A backup taken from the BACKUP SYSTEM utility cannot be used for object level recovery for the
catalog/directory during a disaster recovery scenario.
Answer:A

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NO.28 Within which two DB2 address spaces may the execution of a DB2 stored procedure occur? (Choose
two.)
A.Workload Manager SPAS
B.Database Services (DBM1)
C.DB2-established SPAS
D.Distributed Data Facility (DDF)
E.System Services (MSTR)
Answer:A B

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NO.29 In a data sharing system, a system programmer observes very high page p-lock contention. Which two
actions can they take to reduce this contention? (Choose two.)
A.Reduce row level locking for objects used in high volume transactions.
B.For table spaces defined with LOCKSIZE ANY, use ISOLATION(UR) for high volume query transactions
using these objects.
C.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use COMPRESS NO.
D.Ensure heavy used indexes are defined with COPY NO.
E.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use TRACKMOD NO.
Answer:A E

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NO.30 Which three statements are correct for automatic management of buffer pool storage in DB2 9?
(Choose three.)
A.You do not need to ALTER BUFFERPOOL with AUTOSIZE(YES) to enable this functionality.
B.DB2 provides sizing information to WLM.
C.DB2 communicates to WLM each time allied agents encounter delays due to read I/O.
D.DB2 periodically reports BPOOL size and random read hit ratios to WLM.
E.The automatic altered buffer pool sizes are resized to the original with the recycle of the DB2
sub-system.
Answer:B C D

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Code d'Examen: 000-134
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Business Developer)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which EGL statement is used to send a text form to a user, receive input from the user, and always
return to the same program?
A. show statement
B. converse statement
C. forward statement
D. display statement
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-134 examen   000-134

NO.2 One of several programs in an EGL project requires a different build descriptor option from the other
programs in the same project. What is the BEST way to specify the different build descriptor option?
A. generate the program using Generate With Wizard and override the build descriptor option in the
wizard
B. use a master build descriptor plugin.xml file to control which build descriptor part is used for each
program
C. move the program to a different project so that all programs in each project use the same default build
descriptor part
D. create a build descriptor part for the program and specify it in the EGL Default Build Descriptors for the
program
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-134   000-134   000-134   000-134

NO.3 Which EGL statement demonstrates the correct way to initialize a dynamic array of integers so that the
first element has the value 3?
A. myArray INT =3;
B. myArray INT[] =3;
C. myArray INT[3];
D. myArray INT[3] =3;
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which primitive type provides the best performance for a counter used to control a loop with maximum
iterations of 1000?
A. DECIMAL
B. INT
C. NUM
D. SMALLINT
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-134   000-134   000-134   000-134 examen

NO.5 Which choice is a valid stereotype for a record?
A. Array
B. CSV
C. ExternalType
D. Form
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-349
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Transformation Extender V8.2 Application Dev)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 What Design Studio function cannot be completed using command line utilities?
A. Export type trees and maps
B. Compile maps for the z/OS platform
C. Logical and Structural analysis of type trees
D. Create a type tree using the text file importer
Answer: D

IBM   000-349   000-349   000-349   000-349   000-349

NO.2 Which tool defines relationships and manages collections of runtime maps at design time?
A. Launcher
B. Design Studio
C. Business Monitor
D. Integration Flow Designer
Answer: D

IBM   000-349   000-349 examen   000-349

NO.3 What WebSphere Transformation Extender component would be needed in a production environment
in addition to the adapters?
A. Design Studio
B. Transformation Engine
C. Database Interface Designer
D. Integration Flow Designer
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true of a component rule?
A component rule:
A. is used to create output.
B. is used for data validation.
C. is always evaluated even if an optional component is not present in the data.
D. can refer to any other component in the component list.
Answer: BC

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true of the REJECT function?
The REJECT function:
A. operates on invalid data objects contained within valid objects.
B. returns a text string of up to 500 bytes.
C. can be used in a component rule.
D. can be used in a map rule.
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: 000-377
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Certified System Administrator - WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the most common role that naming plays in WebSphere Application Server?
A.Allows applications to obtain references to objects such as EJB homes.
B.Allows Java programs (clients and Java EE applications) to create, send, receive, and read
asynchronous requests, as messages.
C.Provides a runtime environment for enterprise beans within the application server.
D.Provides a secure facility to support customer's basic organizational entity management needs.
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 Which one of the following profile related tasks can only be performed using the manageprofiles
command-line facility?
A.Delete a profile
B.Secure a profile
C.Federate a profile
D.Update profile templates
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a
Web browser to a servlet?
A.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B.Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C.Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
ANSWER: D

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NO.4 An administrator would like to use the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) to install WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote Solaris host. The Solaris host has been
updated with all the required operating system patches.
What is the next step the administrator must perform?
A.Configure an installation target for the Solaris host.
B.Download Solaris interim fixes to the CIM repository.
C.Use the Job manager to create a remote installation job.
D.Copy WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 software to the Solaris host.
ANSWER: A

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NO.5 How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a
network?
By using:
A.a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.
B.a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents.
C.a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their
administrative agents.
D.an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their
administrative service.
ANSWER: A

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NO.6 Global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The
administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry
and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating system
user ID App1Admin.
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?
A.The administrator can access Application1.
B.The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C.App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D.App1Admin can access the administrative console.
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session
persistence?
A.Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B.Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C.Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D.Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after
installation?
A.Start the server.
B.Execute wsadmin.
C.Configure resources.
D.Run the Snoop servlet.
ANSWER: A

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NO.9 How is the response file specified in a silent installation scenario?
A.Specified in the installation.properties file
B.Specified as a parameter in the launchpad user interface
C.Included as a command-line option on the install command
D.Included as a command-line option on the launchpad application
ANSWER: C

IBM examen   000-377 examen   000-377

NO.10 Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement
a distributed environment? To:
A.segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B.define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C.enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.
D.allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload
management.
ANSWER: C

IBM examen   000-377   000-377

NO.11 An administrator has created a deployment manager profile. However, the administrator chose not to
create the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository and populate it with the WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 product files.
If, in the future, the administrator wants to use the Centralized Installation Manager to install WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote host, which of the following tasks will be
necessary?
A.Create the CIM repository using the Installation Factory.
B.Create a new deployment manager profile including the CIM repository.
C.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation target.
D.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation package.
ANSWER: A

IBM   000-377 examen   000-377   000-377

NO.12 What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a
topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A.Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B.Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C.Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D.Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
ANSWER: C

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NO.13 When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the
transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A.RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B.Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C.File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D.Lease-based exclusive locks on files
ANSWER: D

IBM   000-377   000-377

NO.14 What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.
A.Node agents
B.Web servers
C.Caching Proxy
D.Dynamic cache replication
E.HTTP session persistence and failover
F.Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
ANSWER: DEF

IBM   000-377 examen   000-377   000-377

NO.15 A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible
management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by
connecting to which of the following components?
A.Node agent
B.Job manager
C.Work manager
D.Administrative agent
E.Deployment manager
ANSWER: BE

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NO.16 Which of the following options is NOT a valid method of running the Profile Management Tool?
A.Run the command directly from a system console.
B.Select Profile Management Tool from the First Steps application.
C.Select System Administration -> Run Profile Management Tool in the administrative console.
D.Check the Create a new WebSphere Application Server profile using the Profile Management Tool
option at the end of the installation process.
ANSWER: C

IBM   000-377 examen   certification 000-377   000-377   000-377 examen

NO.17 What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A.Client mode
B.Server mode
C.Not shared
D.Push only
E.Both push and pull
F.Broadcast mode
ANSWER: CDE

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NO.18 A system administrator is installing WebSphere Application Server for the first time and was surprised
that the Profile Management Tool (PMT) did not have the expected profile type options, as stated in the
Information Center.
What is the best conclusion for this finding?
A.The Java runtime being used by the installation program is not at the required version.
B.The system administrator is installing a variant of WebSphere Application Server that is not Network
Deployment.
C.The target operating system the system administrator is installing on is not compatible with WebSphere
Application Server.
D.A previous step in the installation has failed. The system administrator should cancel and check the
logs before starting over again.
ANSWER: B

IBM   000-377   certification 000-377   000-377

NO.19 A WebSphere Application Server installation finishes and the primary installation log indicates an exit
code of INSTCONFSUCCESS. What is the best conclusion that can be resolved from this result?
A.The Web server installed successfully.
B.The WebSphere Application Server installed successfully.
C.The InstallShield Wizard executed successfully to launch WebSphere Application Server installation.
D.The target operating system determined that it is compatible with WebSphere Application Server and
had configured environment variables for it.
ANSWER: B

IBM   000-377   000-377 examen

NO.20 A system administrator has successfully installed WebSphere Application Server V7.0 and has run
the Installation Verification Tool (IVT) with a success message. Which additional step can be taken to
further verify the installation?
A.Check to see if the InstallShield application will run again.
B Check to see if the installation directory specified exists in the file system.
CUse a browser to access the launch page of the IBM HTTP Server.
D.Use a browser to access the administrative console and log in successfully.
ANSWER: D

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NO.21 Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere
Application Server?
A.The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B.The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future.
C.The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative
security.
D.The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done
over several installation attempts.
ANSWER: B

IBM   000-377   000-377

NO.22 What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers?
A.Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B.Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C.Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D.Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
ANSWER: D

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NO.23 Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A.Generic servers
B.Application servers
C.Managed HTTP servers
D.Unmanaged HTTP servers
ANSWER: D

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NO.24 Applications that need to create additional persistent bindings of objects associated with a specific
node can bind those objects under which of the following types of namespace partition?
A.Server roots
B.Cell persistent
C.Node persistent
D.System namespace
ANSWER: C

IBM   000-377   000-377   000-377   000-377 examen

NO.25 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible
management topology and the network deployment cell?
A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.26 When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the
following commands would be relevant?
A.backupConfig -location location
B.restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C.manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D.wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
ANSWER: C

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NO.27 Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and
maintaining resource connections?
A.a data source
B.connection factories
C.connection pool settings
D.a JMS activation specification
ANSWER: B

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NO.28 In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of
the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A

IBM   000-377   000-377

NO.29 A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running
in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?
A.Configure dynamic caching
B.Enable memory-to-memory replication
C.Configure session replication to use a database.
D.Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
ANSWER: A

IBM examen   000-377   000-377

NO.30 Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does
WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A.wsadmin
B.The administrative agent
C.The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D.Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
ANSWER: C

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Code d'Examen: LOT-801
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Application Development Update)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 The default view in the Notes 8 Contacts database allows you to display the information in the view
either on a single line (as with a traditional Notes view) or in a "business card" style format with each entry
displayed in an individual box and the boxes arranged in columns, scrolling vertically. To create a view
that allows this sort of "business card" format, what type of Layout Viewer do you need to specify in the
View Properties?
A. Tiled
B. Boxed
C. Vertical
D. Composite
Answer: A

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NO.2 Barry has just closed the Property Broker Editor after specifying input and output Action parameters for
his Composite Application Editor (CAE). He notices a curved arrow icon in Domino Designer next to the
name of the Wiring Property. What should Barry do to ensure that his changes are saved within his
Domino application?
A. Click the "Refresh" button, and then click the "Open" button in the window that displays.
B. Nothing. The Property Broker automatically saves changes inside the Domino application.
C. Click the "Merge WSDLs" button and click "OK" in the confirmation prompt that then displays.
D. Open the Wiring Property properties and ensure that the "Store in NSF" option is selected. The
changes will be saved within the Domino application when Domino Designer is closed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Kyle is designing a Composite Application that can send a user name from a form to a view, by clicking
a button on the form. He knows he wants to define a Wiring property called ReceiveUserName that will be
used when the view is receiving a user name string that is published by the form. When he opens the
Property Broker Editor to define "ReceiveUserName", what does he define it as?
A. Type
B. Action
C. Event
D. Property
Answer: B

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NO.4 Linda has selected the database property Support Response Thread History for her Call Log
application. When she looks at the document fields in the Document Properties dialog box, she notices a
new field has been added to each new document. What field does Linda see?
A. $TUA
B. $REF
C. $SRTH
D. $REF2
Answer: A

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NO.5 Samir wants to design and deploy a Composite Application that consists of components from two Lotus
Notes databases that both reside on the same Domino Server. He would like to include the Composite
Application definition inside one of the Lotus Notes databases, to make it easier to deploy and replicate.
Can he do this?
A. No, a Composite Application definition must be hosted on a WebSphere Portal server.
B. No, a Composite Application definition must reside in a Lotus Notes database that is based on the
"Blank Composite Application" template.
C. Yes, he simply needs to click the "New Composite Application" button in the Composite Applications -
Application section of the Database design and begin writing the definition.
D. Yes, but first he needs to define the Composite Application in the Composite Application Editor and
save the resulting XML file. Then he can create a new definition in the Composite Applications -
Application section of the Database design and import the XML.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When Bert is designing his Composite Application, he wants to have a Notes view that publishes a
UserName property to another view and also to a Notes form that is open in edit mode. How does he do
this?
A. He simply uses the Composite Application Editor to wire all three components together.
B. He creates one Composite Application that wires the two views together, and then a second
Composite Application that incorporates the first one, with the first view wired to the form.
C. Because each component can only publish a single property, he has to wire the first view publish the
user name to the second view, and then wire the second view to publish the user name to the form.
D. Because he can publish a property only to a single component, he has to make his first view publish
two properties (e.g. UserName1 and UserName2) that both have the same data, so that one of the
properties is wired to the second view and the other is wired to the form.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Victor has a Movie Rental Notes application with a Movie Inventory view. The database is not full-text
indexed, and users are complaining about the long search times when they attempt to search the
database. How can Victor prevent searching in this database if no full-text index has been created?
A. Select the don't allow simple search option in the Database properties.
B. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory view properties.
C. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory document properties.
D. Select the ponfirm full text index before search option in the Database properties.
Answer: A

IBM   LOT-801   LOT-801   LOT-801 examen

NO.8 Maxie is using the new "Defer index creation until first use" option in her views that have sortable
columns, in order to delay creation of these extra indices until they are needed. She notices that the extra
column indices are still being built immediately instead of being deferred. Why is this?
A. This option works only for categorized columns.
B. This option is related to the database's full-text index, not the view index.
C. This option is valid only when the view is used in a composite application.
D. The server administrator needs to set the ENABLE_ON_DEMAND_COLLATIONS=1 setting in the
server's Notes.ini file.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Myrtle is modifying the design of a View in a Notes database, so it can update a published Property that
the other components in a Composite Application can respond to. Where does she write code that
updates a Property?
A. In a view action
B. In the OnSelect event of the view
C. In the QueryModeChange event of the view
D. In the Initialize subroutine of the Global section of the view
Answer: B

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NO.10 Luigi has created a view for his mail file that shows the size of the document. In that column, he would
like to display the size as either kilobytes or megabytes. How can Luigi accomplish this?
A. Set the number format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
B. Set the number format for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
C. Set the Preferences For Display format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
D. Set the Additional Display Formatting for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
Answer: B

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NO.11 The new Rich Text Lite "Thumbnail" input type allows you to specify the height and width of the
thumbnail image, along with what other attribute?
A. File type
B. Color depth
C. Image resolution
D. Attachment name
Answer: D

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NO.12 Beatrice created a new Composite Application database in the Notes 8 client, but when she opens it up
she sees a grey page that says "This Application page does not contain any content." What does she
have to do next?
A. Click the menu option "View - Design" to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite
Application definition.
B. Click the menu option "Actions - Edit Application" to open the database in the Composite Application
Editor to edit the Composite Application definition.
C. Double-click the grey page to open the database in the Composite Application Editor to edit the
Composite Application definition.
D. Right-click the grey page to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite Application
definition.
Answer: B

IBM   certification LOT-801   LOT-801 examen

NO.13 Thomas has utilized the right-click menu option feature in his application to show his custom actions.
He would like to present users with just the custom actions when they right-click with their mouse. How
can he accomplish this?
A. Remove the default menu items from the Action Bar of the view.
B. Deselect include action in Action Bar in the Action button properties of the view.
C. Deselect show default items in right-mouse menu in the Action Bar properties of the view.
D. Select emove default items in right-mouse menu?in the Action button properties of the view.
Answer: C

IBM examen   LOT-801   LOT-801

NO.14 The new "Composite Settings" option in a View column Properties box allows you to specify what?
A. An Action to perform when a row in the view is selected
B. A Property to publish when a row in the view is selected
C. Whether or not to display the column when the view is used in a Composite Application
D. An alternate font type, size, and color to use for that column when the view is used in a Composite
Application
Answer: B

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NO.15 Bonnie has a Customer view in her application that has the following columns (in order): Customer
Name, Customer Address, Customer Phone, Customer Comments, Last Contacted. She would like to
maximize the amount of column space for the Customer Comments field. How would Bonnie accomplish
this in Designer?
A. Select the "Maximum Width" property for the Customer Comment column.
B. Set the Height indicator to 9 lines for the Customer Comments column.
C. Select the extend to use available window width property for the Customer Comment column
D. Add the column name to the xtend to use available window width property in the Customer view.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Scott has just created a new NSF-based Composite Application. He has added two components to his
application and is about to close the Composite Application Editor (CAE). What does he need to do if he
now wants to see how his Composite Application appears in the user interface?
A. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. The database
launch properties must first be set to "Launch as Composite Application".
B. Nothing. The CAE is opened from within the Composite Application. When Scott exits the CAE, he is
automatically presented again with the Composite Application, open in the user interface.
C. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. He will first need
to open the Composite Application using Domino Designer and set the Wiring Properties.
D. When Scott exits the CAE, he is back at the Notes Workspace, just as when exiting other NSF-based
applications. Double-click on the Composite Application's icon on the Workspace to open it in the user
interface.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Nina has been asked to add several views to the Sales.nsf database, many of which are to include
multiple sorted columns and multiple user-sortable columns. How can she help minimize the impact to the
server from these new views?
A. Select the "Defer index creation until first use" Advanced Option from the Advanced tab of the
database properties.
B. Open each view that includes sorted or user-sortable columns. Select the "Defer index creation until
first use" Index option from the Advanced tab of the view properties.
C. Open each view that includes sorted columns. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of each
sorted column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
D. Open each view that includes a user-sortable column. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of
each user-sortable column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Clarisa's agent needs to run every time the APP012 server is rebooted. There is no harm to data if the
agent runs repeatedly, but Clarisa would like to minimize the impact to server performance. How should
Clarisa trigger the agent to run?
A. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "When server starts".
B. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "On agent manager start".
C. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "Run once", and select the schedule option
"On server boot".
D. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "More than once a day". Clarisa should
determine how soon after a server boot the agent must be run. The schedule frequency should be set to
that amount of time.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Kristen has been asked to develop a Composite Application to "wire" the Customer, Orders, and
Inventory applications together. She understands that this will result in communication among the
different pieces of the new application. How does this communication work?
A. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite
Application Editor is used to define Actions
and their parameters, and to configure Property Broker options.
B. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite
Application Editor is launched from Domino
Designer to define Broker Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
C. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. The Property Broker Editor is
launched directly from Domino Designer (or
can be launched via the CAE) to define Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
D. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. Domino Designer must first be
used to define the Wiring Properties.
Composite Application Broker options can then be configured using the Composite Application Editor or
from within Domino Designer.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Timmy is designing a View and he wants to use the new "Split Action Button" option for one of his
Actions. He creates an Action with sub-actions and checks the "Display as split button" box, but the Action
doesn't work as a Split button when he looks at the view in his Notes client. Why is this?
A. Split Action buttons work only for Shared Actions.
B. Split Action buttons work only for Forms.
C. Split Action buttons work only for Composite Applications.
D. The "Enable Advanced Action Bar" setting in the View properties has not been checked.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-374
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator created a queue manager Paint.queue.manager on AIX with circular logging. The
administrator then was told that the system will be used for production, so the logging needs to be
switched to linear.
How can the administrator make this change?
A. Edit "/var/mqm/mqs.ini" and change LogType=LINEAR
B. Edit "/var/mqm/qmgrs/Paint.queue.manager/qm.ini" and change LogType=LINEAR
C. Issue the MQSC command ALTER QMGR LOGTYPE(LINEAR)
D. Recreate queue manager with crtmqm -c "Paint shop" -ll -q Paint.queue.manager
Answer: D

IBM   000-374   000-374 examen   certification 000-374   000-374

NO.2 Which two user profiles are mandatory to correctly run IBM WebSphere MQ on i5/OS?
A. QMQM, QMQMADM
B. QMQMADIM, mqm
C. mqm, QMQM
D. mqm, MUSR_MQADMIN
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the advantages of using queue-sharing groups in IBM WebSphere MQ?
A. workload balancing, remote administration
B. improved performance, ease of monitoring
C. scalability, end-to-end security, data integrity
D. scalability, high availability, workload balancing
Answer: D

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NO.4 An administrator will install IBM WebSphere MQ on an AIX platform. There is a requirement to
configure
the installation to store the queue managers data files under a directory tree different from the default
specified by the installation.
After creating the appropriate directory tree, the administrator should:
A. specify the file location using the -ld option when running the crtmqm command.
B. add an entry for the variable MQSPREFIX in /var/mqm/service.env before running the crtmqm
command.
C. edit /var/mqm/mqs.ini to specify LogDefaultPath in the LogDefaults stanza before running the crtmqm
command.
D. edit /var/mqm/mqs.ini to specify DefaultPrefix in the AllQueueManagers stanza before running the
crtmqm command.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A company running IBM WebSphere MQ V5.3 on UNIX upgraded to IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0.
Immediately after the migration, what is the administrator expected to do?
Start the:
A. MQSeries service
B. queue manager and listener simultaneously
C. queue manager before starting the listener
D. listener before starting the queue manager
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Eclipse version is a prerequisite to use MQ Explorer to administer IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 on
Windows?
A. 3.3
B. 3.2
C. 3.1
D. 3.0
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-374   000-374   000-374   000-374

NO.7 For the Solaris platform, which databases are supported as a resource manager in transactions
coordinated by IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Oracle, Derby, My SQL
B. DB2, Derby, Teradata
C. DB2, Oracle, Informix, Sybase
D. DB2, SQL Server, Sybase, Informix
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator wants to define a IBMWebSphere MQ object so that the applications can be
prevented from sending messages to the processing applications queue APPQ, but continue to allow
administrators to send test messages to the processing application. The application will send messages
using an object
ABC.
What MQSC command should be used?
A. DEFINE QALIAS(ABC) BASEQ(APPQ)
B. DEFINE QALIAS(ABC) TARGET(APPQ)
C. DEFINE QREMOTE(ABC) TARGET(APPQ)
D. DEFINE QLOCAL(ABC) ALIASQ(APPQ)
E. DEFINE QMODEL(ABC) BASEQ(APPQ)
Answer: B

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NO.9 An application deployed on z/OS was causing frequent abends.
Which of the following options from the IPCS Dump Component Panel can an administrator use to
analyze
the problem?
A. CSQWDMP
B. ASMCHECK
C. DIVDATA
D. DAEDATA
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator has created a queue manager on AIX system A, using the command crtmqm ll QMA.
What command will create a backup queue manager for QMA on AIX system B?
A. crtmqm ll QMB
B. crtmqm ll QMA
C. crtmqm lb QMA
D. crtmqm ll backup QMA
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator has been asked to create a queue manager alias for QM1 to be used for
communication
between remote queue managers.
What MQSC command will create the queue manager alias?
A. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME('Q1') RQMNAME(' ') XMITQ(QM1)
B. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(' ') RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(QM1)
C. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME('Q1') RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(' ')
D. DEF QL(QM1.ALIAS) RQMNAME(QM1)
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following are performance enhancements to the Java Message Service provider
implementation in IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Read Ahead
B. Support for channel exits written in C/C++
C. Asynchronous Put
D. Message selection performed by Queue Manager
E. Ability to access all MQMD fields for IBM WebSphere MQ messages.
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 An administrator has created the following MQ objects on two systems:
SYSTEM A
crtmqm -C "VEGGIE QUEUE MANAGER" -LL -Q -D POTATO VEGGIE
DEFINE QR(APPLE) RQMNAME(FRUIT) RNAME(PEACH)
DEFINE QL(DLQ)
DEFINE QL(POTATO) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEF CHL('VEGGIE. FRUIT') CHLTYPE(SDR) TRPTYPE(TCP) CONNAME('9.84.100.7(1414)') +
XMITQ('POTATO')
SYSTEM B
crtmqm -C "FRUIT QUEUE MANAGER" -LL -Q -D GRAPE FRUIT
DEFINE QL(GRAPE) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEFINE QL(PEACH)
DEF CHL('VEGGIE. FRUIT') CHLTYPE(RCVR) TRPTYPE(TCP)
An application connects to queue manager VEGGIE and puts a message to queue APPLE. On which
queue does the message get delivered before it gets picked up by the sender channel?
A. POTATO
B. APPLE
C. GRAPE
D. PEACH
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements are true, regarding applications that communicate via
IBMWebSphere MQ?
IBM WebSphere MQ applications have to agree upon:
A. the platforms they are running on
B. the name(s) of the queue(s) used
C. the maximum number of messages sent within a given time period
D. the layout of the message data exchanged
E. the network protocol used
Answer: BD

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NO.15 An administrator using WebSphere MQ Explorer is unable to connect to queue manager PROD after it
has been migrated, and receives error message SYSTEM.MQEXPLORER.REPLY.MODEL not defined.
Which command will refresh the existing system objects to resolve this issue?
A. strmqm c PROD
B. strmqm a PROD
C. strmqm ss PROD
D. strmqm si PROD
Answer: A

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NO.16 An administrator has been asked to determine which files are needed to restart a queue manager
configured with linear logging.
Which of the following MQSC commands will determine which log files are still required?
A. DISPLAY QMGR
B. DISPLAY QMSTATUS
C. DISPLAY QMSTATUS ALL
D. DISPLAY QMGR RESTART
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are the four predefined message types?
A. Request, response, publication, datagram
B. Publication, subscription, request, response
C. Request, reply, report, datagram
D. Request, broadcast, acknowledgment, response
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which features of IBM WebSphere MQ specifically provide robust message transport?
A. Data integrity, security, parallel processing
B. Asynchronous delivery, once and once-only delivery, persistent messaging
C. Time independence, no duplicate delivery, synchronous processing
D. Assured delivery, application parallelism, time dependent applications
Answer: B

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NO.19 An administrator wants to prevent the channel initiator process from starting when a queue manager
QMA on AIX is started.
Which action(s) will accomplish this?
A. Restart the queue manager using strmqm ns QMA.
B. Restart the queue manager using strmqm chinit no QMA.
C. Issue the command ALTER QMGR SCHINIT(DISABLED), then restart the queue manager using
strmqm QMA.
D. Edit the file qm.ini for QMA and add an entry ChannelInitiator = No in the CHANNELS stanza, then
restart the queue manager using strmqm QMA
Answer: A

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NO.20 A legacy application uses MQPUT to send messages to a queue INV. Which set of MQSC commands
below will successfully configure the queue manager so that a number of
JMS applications can receive these messages by subscribing to topic Inventory/CurrentItems?
A. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE QALIAS(INV)
TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
B. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE TALIAS(INV)
TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
C. DEFINE TOPIC (INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems) QALIAS(INV)
D. DEFINE QALIAS(INV) TARGET(Inventory/CurrentItems) + TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
Answer: A

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