Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Cisco 642-278

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Code d'Examen: 642-278

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Implementing CUCM for TelePresence Video Solutions Exam)

Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

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NO.1 Cisco Unified Communications Manager redundancy for a Cisco TelePresence endpoint is achieved
which two of the following? (Choose two)
A. Configure a Cisco Unified Communications Manager group with two Cisco Unified Communications
manager servers in the preferred order.
B. Configure a Cisco Unified Communications Manager group with three Cisco Unified Communications
manager servers in the preferred order.
C. Configure a Cisco Unified Communications Manager group with three Cisco Unified Communications
manager server because redundancy is not supported for Cisco TelePresence endpoints.
D. Configure a Cisco Unified Communications Manager group with three Cisco Unified Communications
manager servers and the calls will be load-balanced between the two Cisco Unified Communications
Manager servers in the group.
Answer: A,B

certification Cisco   642-278 examen   642-278   certification 642-278

NO.2 Which of the following statements is correct when deploying Cisco TelePresence in a centralized
call-processing scenario?
A. Use Cisco unified SRST to provide for local survivability for the Cisco TelePresence endpoints in the
event of a WAN outage and use AAR to provide an alternative path for Cisco TelePresence calls in the
event that there is insufficient bandwidth on the WAN.
B. Cisco TelePresence endpoints do not support SRST. The best solution is to build a redundant WAN.
C. AAR should be used to reroute Cisco TelePresence calls over a Cisco TelePresence intercompany
service provider in the event that the primary enterprise WAN path is unavailable.
D. Every site in a centralized call-processing deployment must contain a Cisco Unified Communications
Manager node for the Cisco TelePresence endpoints to register to.
Answer: B

certification Cisco   642-278   642-278   642-278   642-278 examen

NO.3 How many TFTP servers should be in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

Cisco   642-278   certification 642-278   642-278

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
The user of IP phone A has opened a trouble ticket that he cannot call IP phone B. where is the best place
for troubleshooting this issue.
A. IP phone B
B. The Cisco Unified Communication Manager system in the site A
C. IP phone A
D. IP phone A user
E. The local VoIP voice gateway of IP phone B
F. IP phone B user
Answer: E

Cisco   642-278   certification 642-278

NO.5 Video bandwidth limits can be set for Cisco TelePresence System endpoints at which two places?
(Choose two)
A. Region
B. Calling search space
C. Device pool
D. Location
E. Physical location
Answer: A,D

Cisco   642-278   642-278

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Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Cisco 642-583

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Code d'Examen: 642-583

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Security Solutions for Systems Engineers)

Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 Deploying logical security controls such as firewall and IPS appliances is an example of which kind of
risk-management option.?
A. risk avoidance
B. risk transfer
C. risk retention
D. risk reduction
E. risk removal
Answer: A

Cisco   certification 642-583   certification 642-583   certification 642-583   642-583

NO.2 Which countermeasure is best used to protect against rogue access points that are outside the
enterprise physical perimeter and that attempt to attract legitimate clients?
A. dedicated rogue detector access points with active and passive RLDP and radio containment
B. personal firewall
C. Management Frame Protection
D. wireless IDS/IPS
E. EAP-TLS bidirectional authentication
Answer: E

Cisco   642-583   642-583   642-583   642-583   642-583

NO.3 Which two protocols can be used to implement high-availability IPS design, using the Cisco IPS 4200
Series Sensor appliance? (Choose two.)
A. spanning tree
B. stateful failover
C. EtherChannel load balancing
D. WCCP
E. HSRP
F. SDEE
Answer: A,C

Cisco examen   certification 642-583   642-583   642-583   642-583

NO.4 Which statement regarding the Cisco ASA encrypted voice inspection capability is correct?
A. The Cisco ASA decrypts, inspects, then re-encrypts voice-signaling traffic; all of the existing VoIP
inspection functions for SCCP and SIP protocols are preserved.
B. The Cisco ASA acts as a non-transparent TLS proxy between the Cisco IP Phone and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
C. TLS proxy applies to the encryption layer and is configured by using a Layer 3/4 inspection policy on
the Cisco AS
D. D. The Cisco ASA does not support PAT and NAT for SCCP inspection.
E. The Cisco ASA serves as a proxy for both client and server, with the Cisco IP Phone and the Session
Border Controller.
Answer: A

certification Cisco   certification 642-583   642-583 examen   642-583

NO.5 What are the advantages and disadvantages of using the "Direct to tower" or PAC file methods for
redirecting traffic to ScanSafe?
A. Advantages: ease of deployment, especially for multiple breakout points Disadvantages: no user
granularity
B. Advantages: user granularity Disadvantages: requires additional hardware for each breakout point
C. Advantages: no browser changes required Disadvantages: not all browsers supported
Answer: A

Cisco   642-583 examen   642-583   642-583   642-583

NO.6 Which Cisco ASA's Unified Communications proxy feature manipulates both the signaling and the
media channels?
A. TLS Proxy
B. H.323 Proxy
C. SIP Proxy
D. Phone Proxy
E. CUMA Proxy
Answer: D

Cisco   certification 642-583   642-583 examen

NO.7 Which two settings can the Cisco Security Agent (release 5.2 and later) monitor to control user's
wireless access? (Choose two.)
A. protection types such as WEP, TKIP
B. wireless card type (802.11a, b, org)
C. SSIDs
D. antivirus version
E. lightweight versus autonomous mode
Answer: A,C

Cisco examen   642-583   certification 642-583

NO.8 Which statement is true?
A. Three-year commitments cost less per year than three consecutive one-year commitments.
B. Three consecutive one-year commitments cost less than one three-year commitment.
C. Three-year commitments cost the same per year as three consecutive one-year commitments
D. CiscoIronPort does not sell three-year commitments.
Answer: A

Cisco examen   642-583   642-583   642-583

NO.9 Which series of steps illustrates how a challenge-and-response authentication protocol functions?
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
Answer: A

certification Cisco   certification 642-583   certification 642-583   642-583

NO.10 DRAG DROP
Answer:

NO.11 Which option best describes Dynamic Content Filtering on the web security appliance?
A. external DLP option for acceptable use scanning
B. filter for pages and frames with dynamic control asset HTML tags
C. content scanner for streaming videos
D. advanced rule engine for categorizing dark web sites
Answer: D

certification Cisco   certification 642-583   642-583   certification 642-583   642-583

NO.12 The Cisco IPS Manager Express (IME) can be used to manage how many IPS appliances, at a
maximum?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 20
F. 25
Answer: B

Cisco examen   642-583 examen   642-583   642-583

NO.13 Which Cisco ASA configuration is required to implement active/active failover?
A. transparent firewall
B. modular policy framework (MPF)
C. virtual contexts
D. policy-based routing
E. redundant interfaces
F. VLANs
Answer: C

certification Cisco   642-583   642-583   642-583

NO.14 Which platform can support the highest number of SSL sessions?
A. Cisco 3845 with AIM-VPN/SSL-3
B. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VSA
C. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VAM2+
D. Cisco ASR1000-5G
E. Cisco 6500/7600 + VPN SPA
F. Cisco ASA 5580
Answer: F

certification Cisco   642-583 examen   certification 642-583   642-583 examen   642-583

NO.15 What is the benefit of the Cisco ASA phone proxy feature?
A. allows businesses to securely connect their Cisco Unified Presence clients back to their
enterprise networks or to share presence information between Cisco Unified Presence servers in different
enterprises
B. allows telecommuters to connect their IP phones to the corporate IP telephony network
securely over the Internet, without the need to connect over a VPN tunnel
C. allows businesses to configure granular policies for SCCP traffic, such as enforcing only registered
phone calls to send traffic through the Cisco ASA security appliance and filtering on message IDs to allow
or disallow specific messages
D. enables deep inspection services for SIP traffic for both User Datagram Protocol (UDP) and
TCP-based SIP environments, thus providing granular control for protection against unified
communications attacks
E. enables inspection of the RTSP protocols that are used to control communications between the client
and server for streaming applications
F. enables advanced H.323 inspection services that support H.323 versions 14 along with Direct Call
Signaling (DCS) and Gatekeeper-Routed Call Signaling (GKRCS) to provide flexible security integration
in a variety of H.323-driven VoIP environments
Answer: B

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Cisco meilleur examen 642-902, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 642-902

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Implementing cisco ip routing)

Questions et réponses: 635 Q&As

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NO.1 What two situations could require the use of multiple routing protocols? (Choose two)
A. when using UNIX host-based routers
B. when smaller broadcast domains are desired
C. because having multiple routing protocols confuses hackers
D. when migrating from an older Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) to a new IGP
E. when all equipment is manufactured by Cisco
F. when there are multiple paths to destination networks
Answer: AD

Cisco   642-902   certification 642-902

NO.2 Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route.? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Answer: CE

Cisco   642-902   642-902 examen   642-902   642-902

NO.3 A router has two paths to reach another network in a different autonomous system. Neither route was
generated by the local router and both routes have the same default weight and local preference values.
Which statement is true about how BGP would select the best path?
A. If the command bgp always-compare-med has been given, then the router will prefer the route with the
highest MED.
B. The router will prefer the route with the lower MED.
C. The router will prefer the shortest autonomous system path.
D. To influence one route to be preferred, its default local preference value will be changed via the use of
the command bgp default local-preference 50.
Answer: C

certification Cisco   642-902 examen   certification 642-902   642-902 examen

NO.4 What are two rules for compacting IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. The maximum number of times a double colon can replace a 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes
is two.
B. The leading zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
C. Every 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a single colon.
D. The trailing zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
E. Any single, continuous string of one or more 16-bit segments that consists of all zeroes can be
represented with a double colon.
F. Two zeroes in the middle of any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
Answer: BE

certification Cisco   642-902   certification 642-902   certification 642-902   certification 642-902   certification 642-902

NO.5 How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication.
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec.
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec.
Answer: C

Cisco   certification 642-902   642-902   certification 642-902   certification 642-902

NO.6 Using the rules for IPv6 addressing, how can the address
2031:0000:240F:0000:0000:09C0:123A:121B be rewritten?
A. 2031:0:240F::09C0:123A:121B
B. 2031::240F::09C0:123A:121B
C. 2031::240F:9C0::123A:121B
D. 2031::240F:::09C0:123A:121B
Answer: A

Cisco examen   642-902   certification 642-902   642-902

NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with
EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not
receiving each other's routes. What is the solution?
A. Configure the auto-summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
B. Issue the no ip split-horizon command on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each
subinterface.
D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute-list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.
Answer: E

Cisco   certification 642-902   certification 642-902   642-902

NO.8 Refer to the partial configurations in the exhibit. What address is utilized for DR and BDR identification
on Router1?
A. the serial 1/1 address
B. the serial 2/0 address
C. a randomly generated internal address
D. the configured router-id address
Answer: D

Cisco examen   642-902 examen   642-902

NO.9 Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 and router RT-2 both advertise network 131.25.0.0/16 to router RT-3
via internal BGP. What is the reason that router RT-3 chose router RT-1 as its best path to network
131.25.0.0/16.
A. It advertises the best AS-path.
B. It advertises the best origin code.
C. It advertises the best MED.
D. It advertises the best local preference.
E. It has a better router ID.
F. It advertises a lower autonomous system.
Answer: E

Cisco examen   certification 642-902   642-902 examen   642-902 examen   certification 642-902

NO.10 Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router.
B. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the SanJose1 router.
C. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command.
D. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command.
E. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose1 because of the lower MED value of SanJose1.
F. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose2 because of the higher MED value of SanJose2.
Answer: AE

certification Cisco   642-902 examen   certification 642-902   642-902   642-902

NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
On the basis of the configuration that is provided, how would the BGP updates that come from router R1
be replicated inside autonomous system 65200?
A. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent to routers R3 and R4. Routers R3 and R4
will then forward those BGP updates to router R5.
B. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will not be sent to routers R3 and R4.
C. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent directly to router R5.
D. None of the BGP updates that are received on router R2 will ever be received by router R5.
Answer: D

Cisco examen   certification 642-902   642-902   642-902

NO.12 What is the difference between the IPv6 addresses ::/0 and ::/128?
A. ::/0 is the unspecified address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
B. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the anycast address.
C. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
D. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
E. ::/0 is the default route, and ::/128 is the unspecified address.
F. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the default address.
Answer: E

certification Cisco   642-902   642-902

NO.13 Refer to the output.
What IOS command produces this output? .
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf
Answer: D

Cisco examen   certification 642-902   642-902   642-902

NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Answer: CD

Cisco   642-902   642-902   642-902

NO.15 During BGP configuration on a router that has peered with other BGP speakers, the BGP command
aggregate-address 172.32.0.0 255.255.252.0 is issued. However, the peers do not receive this aggregate
network in BGP advertisements. Also, the router does not have this aggregate network in its BGP table.
Which option indicates a possible reason this command did not cause the router to advertise the
aggregate network to its peers?
A. Interface NULL 0 is likely shutdown.
B. The BGP command no synchronization is missing.
C. The BGP command no auto-summary is missing.
D. Subnets of 172.32.0.0/22 do not exist in the BGP table.
E. The IGP running on this router does not have network 172.32.0.0/22 installed.
F. The next hop IP address must be a loopback address.
Answer: D

Cisco   certification 642-902   certification 642-902   642-902 examen   certification 642-902

NO.16 What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp
command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Answer: AC

Cisco examen   certification 642-902   certification 642-902

NO.17 Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 chooses one path to network 198.133.219.0/24. Indicate the reason
Router RT-1 chooses this "best" path.
A. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the origin code.
B. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the BGP MED values.
C. IP address 128.107.2.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
D. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 prefers the IGP metrics.
E. RT-1 prefers internal BGP routes.
F. IP address 128.107.254.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
Answer: A

Cisco   642-902   642-902   642-902 examen

NO.18 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true?
A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Answer: A

Cisco   642-902 examen   certification 642-902   642-902 examen   certification 642-902

NO.19 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)
A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Answer: AB

certification Cisco   certification 642-902   642-902

NO.20 Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Answer: ABE

Cisco   642-902   642-902

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Code d'Examen: 642-243

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Unified Contact Center Enterprise Support Exam)

Questions et réponses: 44 Q&As

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NO.1 In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
12345).
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
Answer:C E

Cisco examen   642-243 examen   certification 642-243   642-243 examen

NO.2 Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
caller to opt out and leave a voice
IVR
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
Green choice3
Green choice5
Green choice1
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
12345).
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
Answer:C E

certification Cisco   642-243   certification 642-243   certification 642-243   certification 642-243
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
A.CTI OS (Server)
B.CTI OS (Client)
C.JTAPI Gateway (jgw)
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
E.ICM Call Router (rtr)
Answer:D

Cisco   642-243 examen   642-243
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
caller to opt out and leave a voice
IVR application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
Answer:C E

certification Cisco   642-243 examen   642-243   certification 642-243
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
A.CTI OS (Server)
B.CTI OS (Client)
C.JTAPI Gateway (jgw)
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
E.ICM Call Router (rtr)
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
caller to opt out and leave a voice
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
>Yellow Choice2
>Yellow Choice3
>Yellow Choice4
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
caller to opt out and leave a voice-mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3 / 4
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two.)
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipphone /DN
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
of
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
hone /DN
of
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
A.Calls that are sent to voice mail from the Cisco Unified IP IVR script will appear as "Abandoned" in the
Cisco Unified CCE Call Type reporting.
B.Calls that are sent to voice mail from the Cisco Unified IP IVR script will appear as "Transferred Out" in
the Cisco Unified CCE Call Type reporting.
C.Calls that are sent to voice mail from the Cisco Unified IP IVR script will appear as "Handled" in the
Cisco Unified CCE Call Type reporting.
D.All calls that are sent to this script will be sent to the vmEXT using the Call Redirect step.
E.Callers will remain in queue after they leave the voice-mail message.
Answer:A

Cisco   certification 642-243   certification 642-243   642-243 examen

NO.3 Drop
Answer:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
A.CTI OS (Server)
B.CTI OS (Client)
C.JTAPI Gateway (jgw)
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
E.ICM Call Router (rtr)
Answer:D

Cisco examen   642-243   642-243   642-243 examen   certification 642-243

NO.5 Drop
Answer:
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice3
Green choice5
Green choice1

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Software Certifications meilleur examen CSTE, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CSTE

Nom d'Examen: Software Certifications (CSTE Certified Software Test Engineer (CSTE))

Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 Quality can be separated from the controls associated with it?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Software Certifications examen   CSTE examen   CSTE   CSTE   CSTE   CSTE examen

NO.2 A standard is not an expected norm
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Software Certifications examen   CSTE   CSTE

NO.3 The objective of risk analysis is to help IT management strike an economic balance between
the
impact of risks and the cost of protective measures.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Software Certifications examen   CSTE   CSTE examen   CSTE examen

NO.4 The essence of a quality internal product is:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Improving internal processes
C. Delivering the right product
Answer: A

Software Certifications   CSTE   CSTE   CSTE
8. The purpose of software testing is to____________.
A. Detect the existence of defects
B. Demonstrate that the application works properly
C. Validate the logical design
Answer: A

Software Certifications   CSTE   CSTE   CSTE
9. White Box testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is not known.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Software Certifications   certification CSTE   CSTE examen   certification CSTE   CSTE examen
10. Function points are hardware and software independent.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

certification Software Certifications   certification CSTE   CSTE   certification CSTE   CSTE

NO.5 What is the relationship between testing and quality assurance?
A. QA is part of a complete testing process
B. Testing and QA are two terms for the same thing
C. Testing is part of a complete QA process
D. When Testing is over it becomes QA
Answer: C

Software Certifications   certification CSTE   CSTE   CSTE examen

NO.6 Achieving quality requires:
A. Exceeding the customer's expectations
B. Focusing on the customer
C. Meeting all the definitions of quality
D. All the above
E. Understanding the customer's expectations
Answer: D

certification Software Certifications   CSTE examen   CSTE

NO.7 Many types of errors can be identified and fixed far more economically by design and code
inspections than by testing
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Software Certifications   CSTE   CSTE examen   CSTE examen

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L'avènement de la certification Cloudera pratique d'examen CCD-410 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CCD-410

Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop (CCDH))

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

CCD-410 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CCD-410.html

NO.1 Can you use MapReduce to perform a relational join on two large tables sharing a key?
Assume
that the two tables are formatted as comma-separated files in HDFS.
A. Yes.
B. Yes, but only if one of the tables fits into memory
C. Yes, so long as both tables fit into memory.
D. No, MapReduce cannot perform relational operations.
E. No, but it can be done with either Pig or Hive.
Answer: A

Cloudera   CCD-410   CCD-410 examen

NO.2 Your cluster’s HDFS block size in 64MB. You have directory containing 100 plain text files, each
of
which is 100MB in size. The InputFormat for your job is TextInputFormat. Determine how many
Mappers will run?
A. 64
B. 100
C. 200
D. 640
Answer: C

Cloudera examen   CCD-410   CCD-410 examen   CCD-410 examen

NO.3 In a MapReduce job with 500 map tasks, how many map task attempts will there be?
A. It depends on the number of reduces in the job.
B. Between 500 and 1000.
C. At most 500.
D. At least 500.
E. Exactly 500.
Answer: D

Cloudera   CCD-410   CCD-410 examen

NO.4 Which process describes the lifecycle of a Mapper?
A. The JobTracker calls the TaskTracker’s configure () method, then its map () method and finally
its close () method.
B. The TaskTracker spawns a new Mapper to process all records in a single input split.
C. The TaskTracker spawns a new Mapper to process each key-value pair.
D. The JobTracker spawns a new Mapper to process all records in a single file.
Answer: C

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NO.5 For each intermediate key, each reducer task can emit:
A. As many final key-value pairs as desired. There are no restrictions on the types of those keyvalue
pairs (i.e., they can be heterogeneous).
B. As many final key-value pairs as desired, but they must have the same type as the intermediate
key-value pairs.
C. As many final key-value pairs as desired, as long as all the keys have the same type and all the
values have the same type.
D. One final key-value pair per value associated with the key; no restrictions on the type.
E. One final key-value pair per key; no restrictions on the type.
Answer: E

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NO.6 In a large MapReduce job with m mappers and n reducers, how many distinct copy operations
will
there be in the sort/shuffle phase?
A. mXn (i.e., m multiplied by n)
B. n
C. m
D. m+n (i.e., m plus n)
E. E.mn(i.e., m to the power of n)
Answer: A

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NO.7 You need to move a file titled “weblogs” into HDFS. When you try to copy the file, you can’t.
You
know you have ample space on your DataNodes. Which action should you take to relieve this
situation and store more files in HDFS?
A. Increase the block size on all current files in HDFS.
B. Increase the block size on your remaining files.
C. Decrease the block size on your remaining files.
D. Increase the amount of memory for the NameNode.
E. Increase the number of disks (or size) for the NameNode.
F. Decrease the block size on all current files in HDFS.
Answer: C

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10. Indentify which best defines a SequenceFile?
A. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of homogeneous Writable
objects
B. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of heterogeneous Writable
objects
C. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of WritableComparable
objects, in sorted order.
D. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number key-value pairs. Each key
must be the same type. Each value must be the same type.
Answer: D

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NO.8 MapReduce v2 (MRv2 /YARN) splits which major functions of the JobTracker into separate
daemons? Select two.
A. Heath states checks (heartbeats)
B. Resource management
C. Job scheduling/monitoring
D. Job coordination between the ResourceManager and NodeManager
E. Launching tasks
F. Managing file system metadata
G. MapReduce metric reporting
H. Managing tasks
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: OA0-002

Nom d'Examen: Android (Android Application Engineer Certifications Basic )

Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of these is the correct explanation of an XML layout file?
A. In order to display a Ul defined in the XML layout file "main.xml", call the setContentView method of the
Activity with the parameter string Bmain.xml".
B. There is no distinction between implementation of the layout definition by code, or by XML layout file.
C. In an Eclipse project using the ADT plugin, the XML layout file is found in the /res/layout directory.
D. Layout information written in the XML layout file will be converted into code by the Android platform
when the screen is displayed.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which is the correct file name of the NinePatch image created from a PNG using draw9patch? (Assume
the file name of the original graphic was sample.png.)
A. sample-9.png
B. sample_9.png
C. sample.png
D. sample.9.png
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is the incorrect explanation of an Activity?
A. If another Activity is instantiated when the Activity is executed, onPause() will be executed.
B. When the Activity is displayed in the foreground, onResume() will be executed.
C. When the Activity is displayed again, onRestart() will be executed instead of onStart().
D. When the Activity returns from an onPause(), it sometimes can execute from onCreate().
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of these is not defined as a screen display state?
A. Visible
B. Foreground
C. Background
D. Non-visible
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of these is the correct interface definition used to bind a Service?
A. AIDL
B. IDL
C. KML
D. XML
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of these is the incorrect explanation of the MenuItem interface?
A. The MenuItem instance will be returned by the Menu class add(...) method.
B. MenuItem can decide the Intent issued when clicking menu components.
C. MenuItem can display either an icon or text.
D. MenuItem can set a checkbox.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of these is the incorrect explanation of the androiddebuggable attribute of the
AndroidManifest.xm <application> tag.?
A. If not set, it will be handled as "false".
B. It is necessary to set this to "true" in order to use Eclipse's breakpoint function.
C. The android:debuggable setup value can be read by an application.
D. When releasing the application, deleting android:debuggable is recommended.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of these is the incorrect folder as a folder that is created automatically after completion of the
Android Development Tools Plugin New Project Wizard?
A. dat
B. gen
C. res
D. src
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of these is the correct explanation of BroadcastReceiver?
A. The process which BroadcastReceiver makes active will be protected so that it cannot be force-quit.
B. BroadcastReceiver will only be assumed active when executing getReceive().
C. BroadcastReceiver notifies the source of optional processing results based on the broadcast
contact(s).
D. BroadcastReceiver displays a user interface.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which configuration file holds the permission to use GPS?
A. Layout file
B. Manifest file
C. Source file
D. Property file
Answer: B

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