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Code d'Examen: HP0-J59

Nom d'Examen: HP (StoreOnce Solutions Advanced Service and Support)

Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which library emulation types can be used with the HP StoreOnce D2D4324 Backup System to
integrate the solution in a customer environment? (Select three)
A. HP 2x8 Autoloader
B. D2D-VTL generic library
C. MSL6060 G2 series library
D. EML series library
E. D2DBS generic library
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 A customer asks you to recommend an HP StoreOnce Backup System solution with these
availability features:
Redundant fans
Redundant power supplies
Dual 8 GB Fibre Channel connections
Which Hp StoreOnce Backup System model meets these requirements?
A. D2D2502i G2
B. D2D4106fc
C. D2D4306fc
D. D2D4324
Answer: D

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NO.3 Backup jobs are failing to a NAS share on an HP StoreOnce D2D Backup System permissions
set. What is one way to verify access to this CIFS share?
A. Check if root user permissions have been granted to the share.
B. Verify that no Linux backup servers access the CIFS shares.
C. Check Active Directory or local permissions for the share.
D. Verify that the client system being backed up has permission to write to share.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When reloading the configuration from a saved configuration file, same information will not
be
restored since it could potentially cause data loss on the surviving D2D appliance. Which data is
not restored and needs to be entered during the recovery operations?
A. Replication slot mapping
B. iSCSI partner settings
C. TCP/IP addresses
D. SMTP and eMail settings
Answer: C

HP   HP0-J59   HP0-J59   HP0-J59

NO.5 Which statement describes the difference between deduplication technology used on an HP
VLS9200 and an HP StoreOnce D2D4324 Backup System?
A. The VLS9200 and D2D4324 use post-processing deduplication technology.
B. VLS9200 uses HP post-processing deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP StoreOnce inline
deduplication technology.
C. VLS9200 uses HP Dynamic Deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP Accelerated Deduplication
technology.
D. VLS9200 uses HP StoreOnce Deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP Dynamic Deduplication
technology.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement correctly describes the installation wizard of an HP StoreOnce Backup
System
when run for the first time?
A. It automatically configures the iSCSI Initiator on the target host.
B. It automatically configure the system with the default IP 192.168 1.0/ 24.
C. It automatically operates in High Availability (LACP) network mode
D. It automatically creates an iSCSI device on iSCSI models.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP2-K32

Nom d'Examen: HP (Selling HP SMB Storage Exam)

Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 How does utilizing HP StoreOnce for backup enable the use of low bandwidth links?
A. only the files that have changed need to be transferred
B. only the data blocks that have changed are transferred
C. backups do not need to be performed so frequently
D. backups are performed during non-business hours
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the major difference between block based and file based data?
A. File based data is typically unstructured.
B. File based data is typically found in a database.
C. Block based data is typically stored on a network-attached appliance.
D. Block based data is typically generated by rich media applications.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your midmarket customer wants to develop a private cloud solution. Which HP Storage
product
will be best suited to that requirement?
A. HP StoreVirtual VSA
B. HP StoreVirtual 4500
C. HP 3PARStoreServ7000
D. HP StoreOnce
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which requirements would prevent you from offering the HP 3PAR StoreServ product to a
customer?
A. The customer needs to have thin provisioning.
B. The customer has a VMware vSphere environment.
C. The customer has a need for BC/DR capability.
D. The customer specifically requires VMware vMSC cluster support.
Answer: C

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NO.5 HP StoreEasy is Efficient and Highly Available and provides many other features. Which
additional
feature is regarded as key for your customers?
A. Easy Integration
B. Simple Management
C. Security
D. Cost Effective Performance
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HH0-220

Nom d'Examen: Hitachi (HDS Certified Implmenter-Modular)

Questions et réponses: 109 Q&As

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NO.1 You are implementing a Hitachi Unified Storage File Module cluster with a single SMU. How do you run
the smu-config script?
A. Connect an Ethernet cable and login as supervisor.
B. Connect a serial null-modem cable and login as supervisor.
C. Connect an Ethernet cable and login as root.
D. Connect a serial null-modem cable and login as root.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have just allocated four 3TB LUNs from a Hitachi Unified Storage System to a set of ESX 4.x
servers. The VMware administrator can see volumes that are assigned to the servers from an older
storage array, but not the volumes you have just allocated. What is the most likely cause?
A. The FC switch ports need to be disabled/enabled to force the HBAs to re-login to the fabric.
B. This a newer storage array with an older version of ESX so the HBA drivers need to be updated.
C. ESX 4.x servers cannot recognize volumes that are 2TB or larger.
D. The rescan function in VMware is not working, so both servers need to be rebooted.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have been asked to allocate storage from a Hitachi Unified Storage system to a cluster of AIX
hosts. The application owner wants you to make sure that the queue depth is set to 16 for all the LUNs.
Where do you define the queue depth?
A. on each LUN
B. on the server HBAs
C. on the WWNN Target Ports
D. on the WWPN Target Ports
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer will be implementing a Hitachi Unified Storage File Module two-node NAS cluster with one
SMU. How many power connections are necessary?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.5 When implementing host access security for a LUN in a Hitachi Unified Storage system, to what is the
host WWN applied?
A. Host Group
B. Storage Group
C. Domain Group
D. Link Group
Answer: A

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NO.6 How should the Hitachi Unified Storage systems dual power supplies be connected?
A. by FS6 circuits breakers
B. only one should be connected, the other being standby
C. by adjacent sockets on a single power distribution unit
D. by two independent and appropriately rated power distribution units
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two effects of persistent binding? (Choose two.)
A. Persistent binding can speed up path failover.
B. Persistent binding guarantees Command Device security.
C. Persistent binding can speed up the server boot process.
D. Persistent binding guarantees that target assignments are preserved between reboots.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 A customer wants to start using ShadowImage on several of their existing Hitachi Unified Storage
systems. They would like a solution to centrally configure their Point-in-Time copies. Which product would
you recommend?
A. Hitachi Dynamic Replicator
B. Hitachi Universal Replicator
C. Business Continuity Manager
D. Hitachi Replication Manager
Answer: D

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NO.9 You want to configure SNMP on a Hitachi Unified Storage system. The license key is already installed
and enabled. What are two key steps when configuring SNMP? (Choose two.)
A. Import the MIB file into the HUS.
B. Install an SNMP Manager on the HUS.
C. Create the SNMP environment file in the HUS.
D. Register the SNMP configuration files in the HUS.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 What is Hitachi Data System's recommended practice for zoning?
A. port-based zoning
B. zoning is optional
C. single HBA zoning (one HBA per zone)
D. single operation system zoning (all HBAs from one OS in a zone)
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are two ways to register a new Hitachi Unified Storage system with Storage Navigator Modular 2?
(Choose two.)
A. SNM2 can scan a range of IP addresses.
B. SNM2 can import a .CSV file containing IP addresses.
C. The controller IP addresses can be entered into SNM2.
D. SNM2 automatically detects connected arrays using UDP broadcasts.
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 What needs to be replaced in case of a local memory DIMM failure on a Hitachi Unified Storage
controller?
A. the controller
B. the local memory DIMM
C. the controller and the local memory DIMM
D. the controller, the local memory DIMM and the cache DIMMs
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are three characteristics of the Hitachi Unified Storage systems active/active controller design?
(Choose three.)
A. SNM2 GUI is used to turn on active/active controller processing.
B. Workload is automatically balanced between controllers.
C. When creating a LUN the default controller must be selected.
D. The processor of Ctlr0 can access the Fibre Channel (FC) ports of Ctrl1.
E. Non disruptive firmware upgrade is possible even if a host is connected by only one path.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.14 A customer wants to migrate data between two Hitachi Unified Storage systems using TrueCopy. What
are two requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The DM-LU must be greater than 10GB.
B. There must be FC connectivity between the arrays.
C. The P-Vol and S-Vol size must be equal.
D. A Command Device must be created.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 A Hitachi Unified Storage system is connected to a Solaris server. If you want to optimize performance
for the host I/Os, how do you determine the appropriate queue depth value?
A. Set queue depth to 1.
B. Use the operating system default value.
C. The value is set according to the results of the initial SCSI inquiry.
D. Using the Host installation guide for Fibre Channel.
Answer: D

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NO.16 A customer has a Hitachi Unified Storage (HUS) system model 110 configured with iSCSI I/O interface
boards. They now want to connect it to a FC-SAN and have purchased the FC-Option upgrade to do so.
Which two tasks must be performed on the HUS system? (Choose two.)
A. Set the HUS FC port topology as Fabric.
B. Set the HUS FC port topology as Point-to-Point.
C. Install and enable the FC-Option on the HUS.
D. Install and enable the FC Expansion Board.
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 A customer has identified a performance bottleneck with Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
production host LUNs. The performance improvement plan includes a change to the Hitachi Dynamic Link
Manager load balancing algorithm which is currently set to Round Robin. Which setting would you
recommend?
A. Least I/Os
B. Least blocks
C. Extended Round Robin
D. Extended Least blocks
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer wants to create a multi-path environment for a specific Redhat Linux application on a
Hitachi Unified Storage system. They have created Host Groups on all of the available ports and mapped
the logical units accordingly. Which two multi-pathing options can be used for active/active connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Device Mapper
B. Multipath I/O (MPIO)
C. Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager
D. Multiplexed I/O (MPxIO)
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 Which two operations can be performed with the Web utility on a Hitachi Unified Storage system?
(Choose two.)
A. Take a simple trace.
B. Install license keys.
C. Perform an online microcode update.
D. Perform an offline microcode update.
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 You are upgrading a Hitachi Unified Storage (HUS) system with the File Module option. Which
combination is required to support this upgrade?
A. FC connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS F software bundle
B. 10GbE connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS M software bundle
C. FCoE connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS F software bundle
D. FC connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS N software bundle
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y18

Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 The ProCurve AP 420 radio has one Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID), and each of the two AP 530
radios has 16 BSSIDs.What is the implication of this difference?
A. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 16.
B. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 32.
C. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 16.
D. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 32.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When can a station no longer communicate with an AP?
A. when the received signal falls below 0 dBm
B. when the received signal falls below the background noise
C. when the received signal falls below the station's receiver sensitivity
D. when the received signal falls below the fade margin for the wireless cell
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on the ProCurve AP 530 prevent?
A. loops over connections to stations in the wireless network
B. loops over the APs Ethernet and wireless bridge connections
C. loops over connections between stations in the wireless and the wired network
D. loops over connections between only wireless stations associated with multiple APs
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a function of ProCurve Identity Driven Manager (IDM)?
A. It identifies which wireless users must associate to the wireless network.
B. It enables you to load different configuration files onto your ProCurve Mobility Infrastructure devices.
C. It guides you in creating policies that can be applied, through RADIUS, to either wired or wireless
users.
D. It adds special features to ProCurve Manager (PCM) for configuring radio and wireless security
settings.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does the slot time determine?
A. the number of seconds the AP waits between sending beacons
B. the length of time the station waits between detecting a transmission and sending a frame
C. the beginning of the 802. 11 frame, which enables the AP and the station to synchronize their
transmissions
D. how long the station can "sleep" before it must become active and check the AP to see if there are any
transmissions waiting for it
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want ProCurve Radio Port (RP) 1's radio to function as a neighbor for RP 2's radio.RP 1 will
monitor RP 2 and take action if RP 2 becomes unavailable.You configure RP 1's radio to take which
action if RP 2 becomes unavailable? (Select two. )
A. Open its data rates.
B. Change the radio's channel.
C. Increase the radio's transmit power.
D. Order stations associated with RP 2 to roam.
E. Change the radio mode from 802. 11a to 802. 11b/g.
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Your company has a branch office down the street from your main office.You want to connect the
networks between the two offices, and physical cabling is not an option.Which wireless devices should
you select for this environment?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. two RP 230s and a Wireless Edge Services xl Module
D. two RP 220s with Yagi antennas and a Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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NO.8 The ProCurve Mobility Manager (PMM) site-planning tool provides an Auto Placement tool.What does
this tool take into account as it places devices on the floor plan?
A. the existing RF interference
B. the obstacles that you have defined
C. other devices already placed on the floor plan
D. the floor plan dimensions and desired capacity
Answer: D

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NO.9 What purpose does the second software image on the ProCurve AP 420 serve?
A. It allows you to choose two different images to load onto the AP.
B. It allows you to keep the last software image that was loaded onto the AP.
C. It provides a failsafe image in the event the primary image becomes corrupted.
D. It provides an alternate software version in the event the primary does not support your configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which security option was part of the original 802. 11 standard?
A. 802. 1X
B. Shared-key WEP
C. Dynamic Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access with preshared keys (WPA-PSK)
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your company wants to use the 2. 4GHz frequency on both of your ProCurve AP 530 radios.What
must you do so that both radios can use this frequency?
A. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
B. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b, and install an external antenna for radio 2.
C. Install an 802. 11b/g card on radio 2, and set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
D. Set one radio to 802. 11g and one radio to 802. 11b, install an external antenna for radio 1, and
configure radio 1 to use an external antenna.
Answer: B 18. Which ProCurve AP 530 feature is most beneficial for a small to medium business that has
strong security needs?
A. It monitors for excessive probes to detect possible intrusion attempts.
B. Its internal RADIUS server provides standalone support for 802. 1X authentication.
C. Unlike the ProCurve AP 420, it can operate all 16 of its wireless LANs in closed system.
D. It supports 802. 11a, and hackers generally do not check for networks on this frequency.
Answer: B

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19. A network administrator accesses the Marketing WLAN, which is assigned to VLAN 32 on the
ProCurve AP 530.When the AP 530 submits the administrator's login credentials to the RADIUS server,
the RADIUS server returns a dynamic VLAN assignment of 10 to the AP 530.The AP 530 is using the
default settings for dynamic and static VLAN support. In which VLAN does the AP 530 place the network
administrator's traffic?
A. 32, because dynamic VLANs are disabled by default
B. the default management VLAN, because there is a VLAN conflict
C. 10, because dynamic VLAN assignments override static VLAN assignments
D. 32, because static VLAN assignments override dynamic VLAN assignments
Answer: C

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20. You are configuring a WLAN on the ProCurve AP 420.When students, faculty members, and
administrators associate to the WLAN, you want them to receive the dynamic VLAN assignment for their
particular group.However, when staff members associate to the WLAN you want their traffic to be placed
in the VLAN that is assigned to the WLAN. How do you configure the AP 420 to support these VLAN
assignments?
A. You select the Dynamic VLAN option for the WLAN.Static VLANs are supported by default.
B. You select both the Static and Dynamic VLAN options.These global options apply to the entire AP 420.
C. You select the Enable VLAN option for the WLAN.This option enables support for both static and
dynamic VLANs on this WLAN only.
D. You select the Dynamic VLAN option, which enables both static and dynamic VLANs.This global
option applies to the entire AP 420.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism do both the ProCurve AP 420 and the ProCurve AP 530
support?
A. Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM)
B. SpectraLink Voice Priority (SVP)
C. Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
D. Wi-Fi Multimedia Extensions (WME)
Answer: B

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NO.13 You need to provide a wireless network for a small area that will require two access points.For this
wireless network, you want to support both 802. 11b/g and 802. 11a radios throughout the entire
coverage area.What would you choose?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with two Radio Port (RP) 210s
D. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with one RP 230 and one RP 210
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the default management username and password on the ProCurve AP 530?
A. The username is admin, and the password is admin.
B. The username is admin, and the password is procurve.
C. The username is manager, and the password is procurve.
D. The username is admin, and there is no default password.
Answer: A

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NO.15 How many configuration files can be stored on the ProCurve AP 420?
A. 2: the startup-config and the factory default config
B. 3: the startup-config, the factory default config, and one custom config
C. 3: the factory default config, the startup-config, and the backup startup-config
D. 4: the factory default config, the startup-config, the backup startup-config, and one custom config
Answer: A

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NO.16 Wireless networks present certain challenges.Which wireless network challenge does ProCurve
Mobility Infrastructure Solutions help you address?
A. Users are less productive when using a wireless connection.
B. 802. 11 standards do not provide any guidelines for Layer 2 roaming.
C. 802. 11 standards do not provide any encryption, so you must create VPN tunnels to each end station.
D. Multiple users connect to the network through the same AP, but access must be authorized for each
user.
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are configuring a ProCurve AP 530.You configure two WLANs.What is one reason to enable the
first WLAN only on radio 1 and the second WLAN only on radio 2?
A. to overcome environmental obstacles
B. to double the capacity of each WLAN by using two radios
C. to separate different types of wireless traffic into different collision domains
D. to allow users to choose their radio but still connect to the same Basic Service Set (BSS)
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y16

Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

HP0-Y16 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP0-Y16.html

NO.1 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

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NO.3 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

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NO.5 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

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NO.8 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

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NO.11 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.14 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.15 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.16 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.17 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

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NO.19 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

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NO.21 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

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NO.22 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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NO.24 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.25 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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NO.26 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

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NO.27 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.30 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP2-027

Nom d'Examen: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)

Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

HP2-027 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP2-027.html

NO.1 An engineering drawing firm is planning to upgrade their tape backup systems, but they
are constrained by their investment in older tapes. They need systems that will preserve
their old data by reading backward two generations.
Which tape technology provides read compatibility for two prior generations? Select
TWO.
A. SDLT
B. AIT
C. LTO
D. DLT
E. SLR
Answer: C, D

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NO.2 Which HP 9000 server supports a maximum of two hard partitions?
A. rp4440-4
B. rp4440-8
C. rp7420-6
D. rp8420-32
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which application functionality benefits most from a 64-bit architecture over a 32-bit
architecture?
A. Clustered DNS Server
B. Clustered Print Spooling
C. High Performance Computing
D. Clustered AutoStore Capturing
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is important to implement when providing a non-disruptive IP telephony solution
(VoIP)?
A. Fabric Shortest Path First (FSPF)
B. Packet caching (Pcache)
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. VLAN routing (vlanR)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which backup method provides the lowest TCO?
A. shared SCSI backup
B. local SCSI backup
C. data replication backup
D. automated centralized backup
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which advantage does fiber optic cable offer over copper cabling?
A. lower reliance on hubs and switches
B. longer distances
C. easier implementation
D. lower cost
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which web-based software solution enables a corporate customer to track PC (business
desktop, notebooks and workstations) assets, alerts, diagnostics and SoftPaq distribution
across an enterprise environment?
A. Altiris Deployment Server
B. HP OpenView Helpdesk software
C. HP Essentials software
D. HP Client Manager tool
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which legacy server platforms have high potential to migrate to the Intel Itanium server
platform? Select TWO.
A. HP 9000 servers
B. HP AlphaServers
C. HP ProLiant 300 family servers
D. HP ProLiant 900 family servers
Answer: A, B

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NO.9 What is the benefit of using server virtualization technology, such as VMware, in the x86
server environment?
A. to maximize the utilization of x86 server resources
B. to enable clustering without single-point-of-failure
C. to enable failover-failback between x86 processors
D. to maximize I/O performance by sharing with multiple servers
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which networking security option can be used to authenticate wireless LAN
(802.11b/g/a) access?
A. VLAN
B. DMZ
C. RADIUS
D. BOOTP
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P13

Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Design of HP Integrity Server Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Which applications will benefit most from porting from 32-bit to Itanium 64-bit processors? (Select two.)
A. web services
B. floating point calculations
C. very large databases
D. online transaction processing
E. mission-critical applications
Answer: BC

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NO.2 When you are designing an HP Integrity solution, which HP tool should you use to determine power
consumption?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. sizing tool
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
D. power calculator
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which functions are provided by Integrity Virtual Machines but not by hard partitions?
A. failover protection for high availability
B. ability to run multiple operating systems simultaneously
C. electrical isolation
D. dynamic resource allocation
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statements are true about memory in cell-based Integrity systems? (Select two.)
A. Memory modules of different sizes can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Cell local memory can be configured as a percentage of memory.
C. Cell local memory is faster than interleaved memory for providing access to memory on other cells in
the system.
D. Memory must be installed in dual quads of the same size memory modules.
E. Cell-based systems require cell local memory.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which statement is true regarding I/O technologies in HP Integrity servers?
A. PCIe uses a dual simplex point-to-point topology to move data.
B. PCI-X and PCIe support complex routing.
C. PCI, PCI-X, and PCIe use parallel buses.
D. PCI and PCIe are connector-compatible.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is currently using 32-bit processors in their data center. At present, they are not running out
of disk space for their applications, and they have not had to create partitions for their databases.
What advantage can this customer gain by switching to 64-bit computing? (Select two.)
A. greater security and availability
B. reduced diskspace costs
C. faster response times for queries
D. fewer processors required for tasks
E. potential reduction in licensing costs
Answer: DE

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NO.7 Your customer wants to permanently move processor usage rights within a server. Which type of
licensing is needed?
A. TiCAP
B. vPar
C. GiCAP
D. iCAP
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which feature of the HP sx2000 chipset makes the Integrity rx7640 server a better choice for high
availability than the rx6600?
A. double chip spare
B. Hyper-Threading
C. link self-healing
D. Dynamic Processor Resilience
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which high-availability feature keeps a system running in spite of a multi-bit DRAM error?
A. chip spare like memory
B. memory scrubbing
C. dynamic page deallocation
D. address control parity
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which feature of an HP Integrity cell-based server enables you to replace a failed processor on one
partition, while the other partition is running?
A. dynamic processor deallocation
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. electrically isolated partitions
D. hot plug processors
Answer: C

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